Why do we still say "Lord" and to whom do we refer it to?

[Guest]

Why do we still say "Lord" and to whom do we refer it to

Why do we still say "Lord" in our prayers? I am not opposed to those who do, but this is just a food for thought question.

It's just a study of God's Word for mature bible students.

Greetings

Why do we still say "Lord" and to whom do we refer it to

It depends on what it is one want to know

The principal in knowing who is speaking to you; follows this pattern

John 16:8

And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment:

And to break this down concerning His Word; by division

And when he is come,

He will reprove the world of sin,

And when he is come,

He will reprove the world of righteousness,

And when he is come,

He will reprove the world of judgment:

And when he is come,

He will reprove the world of sin,

And when he is come,

He will reprove the world of righteousness,

These first 2 by division

Establish 1 witness in the word of God; is one and the same

(I and the Father are 1) = the word spoken has come to pass

The 2 became as 1 witness to GOD ALONE

These prophesies are of The Spirit of God /our Father; that speak or prophesied of Christ

Then concerning any of those 2; if one wants revelation of/in the first witness

Then one would NOT necessarily use the name of Jesus when asking this of the Father

Because in that context the Father will resound by showing us revelation of all those scriptures (Both Hidden and not Hidden in the OT) that spoke of the witness of Jesus Christ

Therefore in that context Jesus (the word comes to pass) is as one witness to the one who spoke of Him,

In that context Jesus (the word; come to pass) is glorifying the Father (the one who spoke of Him)

The same is true

And when he is come,

He will reprove the world of judgment:

If one wants to hear from God concerning things to come, or the fulfillments, then concerning this one only; if one wants to see and hear revelation of/in the second witness

Then they would have to use “the name” of Jesus when asking of the Father

Therefore in this context; The Father is glorifying the Son’s prophesies

The part where folks get ignored by our heavenly Father is when they ask a-miss

At another level of the understanding of what James was speaking of was not seen by the context but was mentioned by that principal in Jam 4; when they ask a-miss

John 15:26

But when the Comforter is come,

Whom I will send<=>(this when we use Jesus name) unto you from the Father,

EVEN

The (Holy) Spirit of truth, which proceedeth “from the Father:,

He

(=the Comforter) shall testify of me: >>ALSO

In other words the HS of the Father which proceedeth “from the Father:, reveals the beginning,

=The (Holy) Spirit of truth,

The HS of the Father is not going to answer one if they ask for to see Jesus revealed in the OT and then use “Jesus name” that reveals the end by “another witness”

He (=the Comforter) shall testify of me: >>ALSO

SO we have a testimony that proceeds from God the Father = 1 witness

And we have a testimony who Jesus sends from God the Father = 1 witness

= 2 witnesses

The contradiction and reason why folks don’t get many prayers answered, if they do it’s mostly by accident. Is when mixing up the above,

Mixing up the above ....It’s like reading the word in the scriptures and then having a revelation before the word was even given

(That’s is primary a sickness of those who are of the world,

They think they know what you’re saying and act on it; without finding out what one really said)

This is given to example in the lower contexts of John 8; for example verses 31- to the end

What does "Lord" and "LORD" mean?

Well it depends, by the division

The Father is not our Judge,

All judgment was committed to the Son and because of the very word He spoke to them/us; will also condemn

By reflection

God in the OT had a shadow of turning,

So both those attributes = of wrath or salvation are of the one God.

As to what "Lord" and "LORD" means, they both can be used in context of the judgment or salvation

SO it depends on the context

LG

Edited March 27, 2013 by LoyalGypsy

[BlessedByTheBest]

some food for thought i came across...and thought i would share.

statement of beliefs

http://www.all4yah.o...esia-of-elohim/

LORD, etc..

http://www.all4yah.o...elant.htm#names

excerpt:

From our "SHORT STATEMENT of KEY BELIEFS":

1. We believe in and worship the One and Only Supreme Eternal (Self-Existing) Spirit, ELOHIM (Heb. ), the Creator of all things, as revealed in the Scriptures and through His Spirit.

2. Out of deep respect, and not wanting to use His name in vain, we call ELOHIM by His True revealed names; 'YHWH' (Heb. , evidently pronounced 'Yahuwah') and the shorter form 'YAH' (Heb. ). Yahuwah 'the Word,' (Grk. 'Logos' or 'Spokesman') later became flesh as the Messiah and was called 'Yahushua,' Y'hushua (Heb. ), or the shortened 'Yahshua' or Y'shua (Heb. ). 'Yahushua' means 'Yahuwah saves/is salvation.'

In His earthly ministry, Yahshua the Messiah directed our worship to Yahuwah 'the Father,' whom He said no one knew prior to revelation by 'the Son.' As instructed by Yahshua and New Covenant authors, we pray to ELOHIM 'Our Father' in the name of and by the authority of Yahshua 'the Son,' our Redeemer, High Priest and soon-coming King.

Because in the Hebrew Scriptures, ELOHIM's true name "YHWH" was replaced over 6000 times by Jewish scribes with 'the LORD' (Heb. 'Adonay,' aka, Greek/Phoenician god 'Adonis'), we use the Restored Names KJV of the Bible which reverses this error.

Likewise, in the Greek Scriptures, where "Lord" (Grk. 'kurios,' aka, Persian sun god 'Kuros') is employed for Yahshua and YAH, the RN-KJV chooses the term "Master." This usage is actually correct according to Strong's Hebrew Greek Dictionary:

G2962 kurios koo'-ree-os = from kuros (supremacy); SUPREME in authority, i.e. (as noun) CONTROLLER; by implication, MASTER (as a respectful title):-- God, Lord, master, Sir.

We avoid the title 'Lord' for ELOHIM for these reasons and because the common title used in the Hebrew Scriptures for every local, city, and state pagan god and idol (Heb. 'Baalim'), also translates 'Lord.' Yahshua the Messiah identified Ba’alzebub, the prince of devils (ba'als), as Satan.

A study into the origin of the ENGLISH word "Lord" yields these characteristic results:

"lord" = The etymology of the English word 'lord' goes back to Old English hlaf-weard (loaf-guardian) -- reflecting the Germanic tribal custom of a superior to provide food for his followers.

"lord" = [Middle English] laverd, loverd (13c.), from [Old English] HLAFORD "master of a household, ruler, superior," ... earlier HLAFWEARD, lit. "one who guards the loaves," from hlaf "bread, loaf" + weard "keeper, guardian, ward."

"lord" = [OE] ...a measure of the centrality of bread to human society, the word 'lord' denotes etymologically ‘guardian of the loaf’. ...primitive OE khlaibward, a compound formed from *khlaib ‘loaf’ and *ward ‘guardian, keeper.’ This gradually developed in OE via hlafweard to hlaford, .. it lost its middle /v/ [14th c.] to become the single-syllable word we know today.

THEREFORE, the profane Old English pagan title "Lord," meaning "loaf-guardian" is NOT a set-apart or appropriate title for Our Master Yahushua the Messiah, nor Yahuwah Our Father and Creator.

We generally follow the RN-KJV use of Elohim, YAHUWAH, and YAH, rather than the English term 'God' due to its strong Germanic and ancient Indo-European roots in pagan ba'al worship. We also use the consistent and original Hebrew-English transliteration "Yahushua [or 'Yahshua'] the Messiah," rather than the Greco-Romanized mistranslation "Jesus Christ," which was NEVER used in Israel, by the Apostles or by the Ecclesia until around 500 years ago at the earliest.

[Guest]

As far as YHWH goes, I have this understanding:

When Moses said to God: “Behold, I am going to the sons of Israel, and I will say to them, ‘The God of your fathers has sent me to you.’ Now they may say to me, ‘What is His name?’ What shall I say to them?”, I think Moses is anticpating that they would want to know God's name, after all, the Gods of the Egyptians had names. Names in general, come from people who have the authority to name another. God gave Adam, the job of naming the animals, and later Adam also named Eve.

Who is in a postion to name God? The idea that God would even have a name of that sort, might be a little silly, since no one has the authority to name God, no one prexisted God to name him when He came into existance, because He never came into existence,He just always was.

God's answer to Moses was:

“I AM WHO I AM”; and He said, “Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, ‘I AM has sent me to you.’” God, furthermore, said to Moses, “Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, ‘The LORD, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.’ This is My name forever, and this is My memorial-name to all generations.

There is a time andor event like component in the Hebrew. God seems to be saying something along the lines a description of His timelessnes, as though he is communicating to Moses (and to us):

I was who I was, I am who I am, and I will prove to be who I prove to be. Bible translaters have struggled with this "I AM" for a long time, becuase this simple word, YHWH, carries a lot more that a word in English can. This is why translations sometimes say "I AM" or "I Am the all existing one" or "I am the eternal", thaing along that line. This is more of a description than a proper name, but God at this point has declared how He wants to be referred to in all the generation from then forward.

The question was asked or the topic was pondered in previous posts, whether YHWH refers to the Father or to Jesus. Why does it have to be one or the other? We use the word God, primarily to indicate the Father often, but we also understand that the Son is also God, as is the Holy Spirit, why cannot YHWH also refer to all the members of the Godhead, are they not also eternal?

Notice this familiar New Testament passage:

Judas then, having received the Roman cohort and officers from the chief priests and the Pharisees, came there with lanterns and torches and weapons. So Jesus, knowing all the things that were coming upon Him, went forth and said to them, “Whom do you seek?” They answered Him, “Jesus the Nazarene.” He said to them, “I am.” And Judas also, who was betraying Him, was standing with them. So when He said to them, “I am,” they drew back and fell to the ground.

When Jesus says "I AM" they fall to the ground. Considering the effect that this utterance had on them, is it fair to speculate that Jesus is not merely admitting to being Jesus of Nazareth, but is also proclaiming His devinity, identifying with the I am of Exodus, and the power of the name, spoken by it's owner, bowled them over? By the way, ever notice that some don't seem to get that Jesus identified Himself as God, He was frequently accused of blasphemy, claiming to be God. Some of us do not see it, but the Jewish im perfectly, that is why they wanted to stone Him. He could have said: "no fellas, you misunderstand me", but He never did, they understood perfectly well, that He claimed diety.

Just some thoughts. I know that I have assumed a lot here, a lot more speculation than is usually the case for me. So, don't take my words as authoritative, only scripture is authoritative. What I just wrote was opinion.

To the original poster, I think you are right to think about these things, to wonder what words mean etc. My obervation is, that you know perfectly well what Lord means, you said your self that it is equivalent to master. I feel certain, that you have read enough Bible to have noticed, that a complimenary word to master, is servant or slave. We call Him Lord, becuase we are admitting that was are servant and slaves, here to do His bidding. You asked a great question: "Why do we call Him Lord?"

Jesus Himself said:

“Why do you call Me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ and do not do what I say?

If we call Him Lord, we should do so and do what He says, becuase He is Lord. That is not to say, that we should not call Him Lord, if we are not serving Him, it just means we need to live in a way that is in agreement with His position and ours. We cannot make Jesus Lord of our lives, He is already Lord, but we can makeourselves serve the Lord as the Lord He is. Even the lazy unprofitable servents, and those who refuse to admit His Lordship will eventually:

Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. For this reason also, God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus EVERY KNEE WILL BOW, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth,and that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Amen, Jesus, You are our Lord