The Rapture & The Second Coming Of Christ

[missmuffet]

 

 

When we are raptured our bodies will be changed at that time.

Study Rev. chapter 20 and see if that is the resurrection you are speaking of.

 

 

All Rev 20:4-6 is doing is stating what the rapture is and not the timeline. But then again I do see a timeline. Check it out....(Rev 20:4-5Then I saw thrones, and they sat on them, and judgment was given to them. And I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded because of their testimony of Jesus and because of the word of God, and those who had not worshiped the beast or his image, and had not received the mark on their forehead and on their hand ; and they came to life and reigned with Christ for a thousand years. 5 The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were completed. This is the first resurrection. 6 Blessed and holy is the one who has a part in the first resurrection ; over these the second death has no power, but they will be priests of God and of Christ and will reign with Him for a thousand years.)

 

Doesn't beheading, idolatry and the mark of the beast happen during the great tribulation and antichrist movement???

Is this saying the rapture is after these events?

 

And which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither

had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands,

http://www.biblestudytools.com/commentaries/gills-exposition-of-the-bible/revelation-20-4.html

see ( Revelation 13:1 Revelation 13:4 Revelation 13:14-16 ) . This describes such who shall have made no profession of the Popish religion, nor have supported it in any way; who shall not have joined in the idolatry of the Romish antichrist, but shall have protested against it, and departed from it, and shall have adhered to Christ, and to the true worship of God; see ( Revelation 14:1 ) ( 15:2 ) . And so this, with the preceding character, includes all the saints that lived under Rome Pagan, and Rome Papal, to the destruction of antichrist, and the setting up of Christ's kingdom; not that these martyrs and confessors, or even all the saints of their times, are the only persons that shall share in the glory and happiness of the thousand years' reign of Christ, and binding of Satan; for all the saints will come with Christ, and all the dead in Christ will rise first, or be partakers of the first resurrection; and all that are redeemed by his blood, of whatsoever nation, or in whatsoever age of the world they have lived, even from the beginning of it, shall be kings and priests, and reign with him on earth, ( Zechariah 14:5 ) ( 1 Thessalonians 3:13 ) ( 1 Thessalonians 4:14 1 Thessalonians 4:16 ) ( Revelation 5:9 Revelation 5:10 ) though John only takes notice of these, because the design of this book, and of the visions shown to him, was only to give a prophetic history of the church, from his time, to the end of the world; and these particularly are observed to encourage the saints under sufferings for Christ:

 

 

That all depends on what eschatology view you take.Their are many.Everyone has the right to make their own choices.

[Guest DRS81]

That all depends on what eschatology view you take.Their are many.Everyone has the right to make their own choices.

That's true, it could also just be stating the fact, that believers simply are persecuted, refuse idolatry and resist the mark.

 

Like a vision..... "and I saw the souls of those".

[ENOCH2010]

Yes it's saying the rapture/second coming is after the tribulation

[Guest DRS81]

Yes it's saying the rapture/second coming is after the tribulation

 

Not necessarily (post#22).

Also, some say Rev 4 is pre-trib rapture proof because it comes prior to Rev 6-18 describing the great tribulation.

The church isn't mentioned between Rev 6-18.

[ENOCH2010]

 

Yes it's saying the rapture/second coming is after the tribulation

 

Not necessarily (post#22).

Also, some say Rev 4 is pre-trib rapture proof because it comes prior to Rev 6-18 describing the great tribulation.

The church isn't mentioned between Rev 6-18.

 

The big difference is there is no mention of a resurrection prior to Rev.20 and the second coming. Ergo no resurrection, no rapture prior to the second coming.

[Guest DRS81]

 

 

Yes it's saying the rapture/second coming is after the tribulation

 

Not necessarily (post#22).

Also, some say Rev 4 is pre-trib rapture proof because it comes prior to Rev 6-18 describing the great tribulation.

The church isn't mentioned between Rev 6-18.

 

The big difference is there is no mention of a resurrection prior to Rev.20 and the second coming. Ergo no resurrection, no rapture prior to the second coming.

 

But there is a resurrection prior to Rev 20. Check out Rev 4..1 After these things I looked, and behold, a door standing open in heaven, and the first voice which I had heard, like the sound of a trumpet speaking with me, said, "Come up here, and I will show you what must take place after these things." 2 Immediately I was in the Spirit ; and behold, a throne was standing in heaven, and One sitting on the throne. 3 And He who was sitting was like a jasper stone and a sardius in appearance ; and there was a rainbow around the throne, like an emerald in appearance. 4 Around the throne were twenty-four thrones ; and upon the thrones I saw twenty-four elders sitting, clothed in white garments, and golden crowns on their heads.

The "second coming of Christ" is just a phrase to describe the main event. There are smaller events inside the main event. I think that's what you're confused with.

[ENOCH2010]

So everytime we see the words "come up hither" we are to assume a rapture and resurrection. I'm not the one that is confused, the resurrection in Rev.20 is called the first resurrection for a reason. That reason being, to the world the confusion that erupts when someone starts adding a resurrection to the book of Revelation other than the 2 that are described. 

 

 

the whole phrase ( "come up hither") is used once in proverbs 25 and twice in Revelations  so does that make 3 pre-trib raptures 

 

and your telling me i'm confused

[Guest DRS81]

So everytime we see the words "come up hither" we are to assume a rapture and resurrection. I'm not the one that is confused, the resurrection in Rev.20 is called the first resurrection for a reason. That reason being, to the world the confusion that erupts when someone starts adding a resurrection to the book of Revelation other than the 2 that are described. 

 

 

the whole phrase ( "come up hither") is used once in proverbs 25 and twice in Revelations  so does that make 3 pre-trib raptures 

 

and your telling me i'm confused

 

Just because scripture describes the rapture in different books of the Bible doesn't mean (A) rapture occurs in each scripture. It just simply means there is more poetry to the event. They are using more description to describe one event, the rapture. For example, take a look at 1 Thess 4:15-17 and 1 Cor 15:51-54. These two scriptures are describing the rapture but are in different books, because God is a painter and an artist and a creator. The pieces of the puzzle are not yet finished in prophecy because God's timing is just that..it's God's.

[missmuffet]

The word "rapture" does not occur in the Bible.The concept of the rapture is clearly taught in scripture.

1 Thessalonians 4:13-18

1 Corinthians 15:50-54

[Guest DRS81]

The word "rapture" does not occur in the Bible.The concept of the rapture is clearly taught in scripture.

1 Thessalonians 4:13-18

1 Corinthians 15:50-54

 

Correct.