Why will temple sacrifices resume during the millinium?

[Guest shiloh357]

Why do we think there will be animal sacrifices during the 1000 years???

Read Ezekiel 40-48 about the millennial temple.

[Guest shiloh357]

I understand that animal sacrifices will resume during Christ's 1000 year reign on earth. Why?

I have been told it is to remember His sacrifice for all, like we do in the Lord's supper (which was to be celebrated until He comes). But I thought that there is no need for animal sacrifices since they cannot make anyone perfect, and it is not possible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins.

Hebrews 10, 1-18. V.16. This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, says the Lord: I will put My laws into their hearts, and in their minds I will write them. Then He adds, Their sins and their lawless deeds i will remember no more. Now where there is a remission of these there is no longer an offering for sin.. NKJV

Does that mean that there will no longer be remission of sins during the mellinium?

Will there be another covenant with the people during the millinium that will again require the killing of bulls and goats?

Or will they just represent gifts to the Lord?.

Please clarify for me the need for animal sacrifices during the mellinium.

The sacrifices are nothing more than a memorial.  There is no sin offering for the sins of people in the millennial temple. 

 

No one was saved by the sacrifices in the OT.  I think there is unspoken belief by many that the sacrifices were how people got saved in the OT and Jesus came and brought a new way of salvation.  But that is incorrect.  Everyone was saved by grace through faith apart from works.

[mevosper]

 

I understand that animal sacrifices will resume during Christ's 1000 year reign on earth. Why?

I have been told it is to remember His sacrifice for all, like we do in the Lord's supper (which was to be celebrated until He comes). But I thought that there is no need for animal sacrifices since they cannot make anyone perfect, and it is not possible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins.

Hebrews 10, 1-18. V.16. This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, says the Lord: I will put My laws into their hearts, and in their minds I will write them. Then He adds, Their sins and their lawless deeds i will remember no more. Now where there is a remission of these there is no longer an offering for sin.. NKJV

Does that mean that there will no longer be remission of sins during the mellinium?

Will there be another covenant with the people during the millinium that will again require the killing of bulls and goats?

Or will they just represent gifts to the Lord?.

Please clarify for me the need for animal sacrifices during the mellinium.

The sacrifices are nothing more than a memorial.  There is no sin offering for the sins of people in the millennial temple. 

 

No one was saved by the sacrifices in the OT.  I think there is unspoken belief by many that the sacrifices were how people got saved in the OT and Jesus came and brought a new way of salvation.  But that is incorrect.  Everyone was saved by grace through faith apart from works.

 

I think there is a misunderstanding somewhere. Ezekiel 43:18-27 clearly talks about sin offerings of animals, bullocks, goats and rams. If there are no sin offerings for people in the millennial temple, what are the offerings in verses 18-27 talking about. Who is sinning that would (1) require sin offerins, and (2) the blood of animals would satisfy the requirement of a sin offering:

 

Eze 43:18-27 KJV - And he said unto me, Son of man, thus saith the Lord GOD; These are the ordinances of the altar in the day when they shall make it, to offer burnt offerings thereon, and to sprinkle blood thereon.

- And thou shalt give to the priests the Levites that be of the seed of Zadok, which approach unto me, to minister unto me, saith the Lord GOD, a young bullock for a sin offering.

 - And thou shalt take of the blood thereof, and put it on the four horns of it, and on the four corners of the settle, and upon the border round about: thus shalt thou cleanse and purge it.

 - Thou shalt take the bullock also of the sin offering, and he shall burn it in the appointed place of the house, without the sanctuary.

 - And on the second day thou shalt offer a kid of the goats without blemish for a sin offering; and they shall cleanse the altar, as they did cleanse it with the bullock.

 - When thou hast made an end of cleansing it, thou shalt offer a young bullock without blemish, and a ram out of the flock without blemish.

 - And thou shalt offer them before the LORD, and the priests shall cast salt upon them, and they shall offer them up for a burnt offering unto the LORD.

 - Seven days shalt thou prepare every day a goat for a sin offering: they shall also prepare a young bullock, and a ram out of the flock, without blemish.

 - Seven days shall they purge the altar and purify it; and they shall consecrate themselves.

 - And when these days are expired, it shall be, that upon the eighth day, and so forward, the priests shall make your burnt offerings upon the altar, and your peace offerings; and I will accept you, saith the Lord GOD.

 

Christ came to fulfill the law, and that he did. These offerings sound very much like some of the sin offerings in the OT times. Not really something I would think would be happening in the Millennial kingdom. 

 

I'm sure I'm missing something - but what?

[Guest shiloh357]

 

 

I understand that animal sacrifices will resume during Christ's 1000 year reign on earth. Why?

I have been told it is to remember His sacrifice for all, like we do in the Lord's supper (which was to be celebrated until He comes). But I thought that there is no need for animal sacrifices since they cannot make anyone perfect, and it is not possible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins.

Hebrews 10, 1-18. V.16. This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, says the Lord: I will put My laws into their hearts, and in their minds I will write them. Then He adds, Their sins and their lawless deeds i will remember no more. Now where there is a remission of these there is no longer an offering for sin.. NKJV

Does that mean that there will no longer be remission of sins during the mellinium?

Will there be another covenant with the people during the millinium that will again require the killing of bulls and goats?

Or will they just represent gifts to the Lord?.

Please clarify for me the need for animal sacrifices during the mellinium.

The sacrifices are nothing more than a memorial.  There is no sin offering for the sins of people in the millennial temple. 

 

No one was saved by the sacrifices in the OT.  I think there is unspoken belief by many that the sacrifices were how people got saved in the OT and Jesus came and brought a new way of salvation.  But that is incorrect.  Everyone was saved by grace through faith apart from works.

 

I think there is a misunderstanding somewhere. Ezekiel 43:18-27 clearly talks about sin offerings of animals, bullocks, goats and rams. If there are no sin offerings for people in the millennial temple, what are the offerings in verses 18-27 talking about. Who is sinning that would (1) require sin offerins, and (2) the blood of animals would satisfy the requirement of a sin offering:

 

Eze 43:18-27 KJV - And he said unto me, Son of man, thus saith the Lord GOD; These are the ordinances of the altar in the day when they shall make it, to offer burnt offerings thereon, and to sprinkle blood thereon.

- And thou shalt give to the priests the Levites that be of the seed of Zadok, which approach unto me, to minister unto me, saith the Lord GOD, a young bullock for a sin offering.

 - And thou shalt take of the blood thereof, and put it on the four horns of it, and on the four corners of the settle, and upon the border round about: thus shalt thou cleanse and purge it.

 - Thou shalt take the bullock also of the sin offering, and he shall burn it in the appointed place of the house, without the sanctuary.

 - And on the second day thou shalt offer a kid of the goats without blemish for a sin offering; and they shall cleanse the altar, as they did cleanse it with the bullock.

 - When thou hast made an end of cleansing it, thou shalt offer a young bullock without blemish, and a ram out of the flock without blemish.

 - And thou shalt offer them before the LORD, and the priests shall cast salt upon them, and they shall offer them up for a burnt offering unto the LORD.

 - Seven days shalt thou prepare every day a goat for a sin offering: they shall also prepare a young bullock, and a ram out of the flock, without blemish.

 - Seven days shall they purge the altar and purify it; and they shall consecrate themselves.

 - And when these days are expired, it shall be, that upon the eighth day, and so forward, the priests shall make your burnt offerings upon the altar, and your peace offerings; and I will accept you, saith the Lord GOD.

 

Christ came to fulfill the law, and that he did. These offerings sound very much like some of the sin offerings in the OT times. Not really something I would think would be happening in the Millennial kingdom. 

 

I'm sure I'm missing something - but what?

 

Sin offerings serve more than one purpose.   Sin offerings mentioned above cited as being used for the consecration of inanimate objects and for the consecration of the priests.  They are not for the forgiveness of sins.   The word "atonement" means more than covering over human sin.  Making "atonement" for the altar simply means to consecrate the altar for a holy purpose.

 

That is a perfectly legitimate use of the sin offerings and doesn't violate Scripture or run crosswise with Jesus as our final sin offering on the cross.

[mevosper]

Sin offerings serve more than one purpose.   Sin offerings mentioned above cited as being used for the consecration of inanimate objects and for the consecration of the priests.  They are not for the forgiveness of sins.   The word "atonement" means more than covering over human sin.  Making "atonement" for the altar simply means to consecrate the altar for a holy purpose.

 

That is a perfectly legitimate use of the sin offerings and doesn't violate Scripture or run crosswise with Jesus as our final sin offering on the cross.

 

 

I don't believe that is what is happening in this passage and I'm having a difficult time accepting what you are saying.  Here's why:

 

1) the term "sin offering" is used four times in these passages (Vs 19, 21, 22, 25) to describe what these sacrifices are to be used for. I think that qualifies as a sin offering. 

 

2) There is the sacrifice of living beings. It wasn't until after the fall that sacrifices were needed. Vs 27: God says "I will accept you" after the sacrifices. God created man to dwell with him - "I will be their God and they shall be my people". He will dwell with them as he did with Adam & Eve before the fall. There is no need to sacrifice anything in order for man to dwell with, or be accepted by God, during this millennial kingdom period.    

 

3) v19 talks about priests. Wouldn't we all be priests & kings during this time. So there would be no need of priests to offer these sacrifices.

 

I do feel these are what we saw in the levitical laws that moses brought to the children of Israel. But these were just shadows of things to come. The real thing would be more than shadows, making the shadows not necessary. 

 

What else does "atonement" stand for and how is it used in the OT?

Edited October 4, 2014 by mevosper

[Guest shiloh357]

 

Sin offerings serve more than one purpose.   Sin offerings mentioned above cited as being used for the consecration of inanimate objects and for the consecration of the priests.  They are not for the forgiveness of sins.   The word "atonement" means more than covering over human sin.  Making "atonement" for the altar simply means to consecrate the altar for a holy purpose.

 

That is a perfectly legitimate use of the sin offerings and doesn't violate Scripture or run crosswise with Jesus as our final sin offering on the cross.

 

 

I don't believe that is what is happening in this passage and I'm having a difficult time accepting what you are saying.  Here's why:

 

1) the term "sin offering" is used four times in these passages (Vs 19, 21, 22, 25) to describe what these sacrifices are to be used for. I think that qualifies as a sin offering. 

 

 

 

Yes, but it these sin offerings are for inanimate (non-living) things like the altar.  How can an altar commit sin?  It can't.  That means you need to adjust your understanding of what the term "sin offering" means in the context of an object that cannot sin.   The Bible tells us in the very passage you cite that the sin offerings are for the cleansing/consecration of the altar.  So your question is answered in the very passage you are referring to.

 

2) There is the sacrifice of living beings. It wasn't until after the fall that sacrifices were needed. Vs 27: God says "I will accept you" after the sacrifices. God created man to dwell with him - "I will be their God and they shall be my people". He will dwell with them as he did with Adam & Eve before the fall. There is no need to sacrifice anything in order for man to dwell with, or be accepted by God, during this millennial kingdom period.    

 

 

Yes and that is not what those sacrifices are for, and the passage tells you what they are for, but you are not paying attention to what it is saying.

 

3) v19 talks about priests. Wouldn't we all be priests & kings during this time. So there would be no need of priests to offer these sacrifices.

 

This is fulfilling the promises that God made to Israel.  The priests are believers but they are of the line of Zadok.

 

 

I do feel these are what we saw in the levitical laws that moses brought to the children of Israel. But these were just shadows of things to come. The real thing would be more than shadows, making the shadows not necessary. 

 

But we are not dealing with the Levitical priesthood in the Ezekiel temple.

 

 

What else does "atonement" stand for and how is it used in the OT?

 

 

 

It is used in terms of consecration and cleansing when talking about groups of people or inanimate objects.

[Guest]

What else does "atonement" stand for and how is it used in the OT?

 

 

Beloved, For Me A Vivid Example Of Atonement

 

Make thee an ark of gopher wood; rooms shalt thou make in the ark, and shalt pitch it within and without with pitch. Genesis 6:14 (KJV)

 

Is Pitch

 

Make thee an ark of cedar trees; rooms shalt thou make in the ark and shalt reconcile it within and without covering it over with pitch. {Heb. ransom or atonement} Genesis 6:14 (Jubilee Bible 2000)

[Willa]

While I don't get a vote--mods do that-- Shiloh and Openly Curious have best cleared my cobwebs. Many thanks to your time and effort. The Holy Spirit has spoken to my heart. I felt so when I asked if they represented gifts to the Lord, and it was confirmed in detail by your answers, as well as for the purpose of consecration. Very enlightening. Thank you so much.

After thought: some of us old goats continue to present ourselves a living sacrifices as well.

Blessings,

Willa

[mevosper]

 

Yes, but it these sin offerings are for inanimate (non-living) things like the altar.  How can an altar commit sin?  It can't.  That means you need to adjust your understanding of what the term "sin offering" means in the context of an object that cannot sin.   The Bible tells us in the very passage you cite that the sin offerings are for the cleansing/consecration of the altar.  So your question is answered in the very passage you are referring to.

 

So it's a sin offering but not really for sin, since the atonement taking place is being applied to inanimate objects, which cannot sin, but still need atonement? It's an inanimate-object-sin-offering-not-for-sin-but-atonement-for-dead-things. Is this really what you are trying to feed the people of this forum. Or am I oversimplifying what you are saying? 

 

...and you want me to "adjust my understanding" to conform to yours? Dang, brother, that ain't gonna happen. 

 

 

 

 

 

Quote

2) There is the sacrifice of living beings. It wasn't until after the fall that sacrifices were needed. Vs 27: God says "I will accept you" after the sacrifices. God created man to dwell with him - "I will be their God and they shall be my people". He will dwell with them as he did with Adam & Eve before the fall. There is no need to sacrifice anything in order for man to dwell with, or be accepted by God, during this millennial kingdom period. 

  

Yes and that is not what those sacrifices are for, and the passage tells you what they are for, but you are not paying attention to what it is saying.

 

Another "yes, but..."

 

You are agree that there will be need for animal sacrifices in the Millennial reign? 

 

 

Umm..I'm paying attention to verse 27

 

Eze 43:27 KJV - And when these days are expired, it shall be, that upon the eighth day, and so forward, the priests shall make your burnt offerings upon the altar, and your peace offerings; and I will accept you, saith the Lord GOD.

 

It is absolutely what these sacrifices and offerings are for. To be accepted by God - which will not be necessary in the millennial kingdom. 

 

What passages are you talking about?

 

 

 

Quote

3) v19 talks about priests. Wouldn't we all be priests & kings during this time. So there would be no need of priests to offer these sacrifices.

This is fulfilling the promises that God made to Israel.  The priests are believers but they are of the line of Zadok.

Shiloh, let's check what the actual passage says:

 

Eze 43:19 KJV - And thou shalt give to the priests the Levites that be of the seed of Zadok, which approach unto me, to minister unto me, saith the Lord GOD, a young bullock for a sin offering.

 

These are really "the Levites that be of the seed of Zadok". This I would classify as being specifically the seed (this doesn't need to be defined any further, does it?) from Zadok. Zadok, as you may or may not know, was one of the priests that was in office during the reign of King David (2 Sam 8:14-17). It appears as though his office was specific to the burning and atoning of sacrifices. He was also charged with taking the ark of the covenant back to Jerusalem when David was vacating (not willingly) the throne because of his son Absalom (2 Sam 15). 

 

I believe what we are seeing in these passages is:

1. reflection back on David's kingdom (and yes, the temple was not erected until Solomon), and;
2. how Christ will fulfill the promise to David. As we know, King David was a "man after God's own heart". God gave David promises that his line would rule from the throne forever and ever. This is fulfilled in the person of Jesus Christ. 

Furthermore, Ezekiel 40:1 gives the date as the 10th day "in the beginning of the year". I'm guessing the month would be Nisan (which on that day is the day the passover lamb was brought into the house Exodus 12:3), or Tishrei 10 which would be the day of atonement, (which ironically is today). Both significant days in the OT. I don't think that this should just be glossed over. 

 

Taking the position that this is Nisan 10, back to Ezekiel, after the description of the temple:

 

Eze 43:2-4 KJV - And, behold, the glory of the God of Israel came from the way of the east: and his voice was like a noise of many waters: and the earth shined with his glory.

- And it was according to the appearance of the vision which I saw, even according to the vision that I saw when I came to destroy the city: and the visions were like the vision that I saw by the river Chebar; and I fell upon my face.

- And the glory of the LORD came into the house by the way of the gate whose prospect is toward the east.

 

I think we can agree that this is talking about Christ. The question is: When? We know he came into Jerusalem on the 10th of Nisan riding on a colt. If we line up the timing of Ezekiel's vision with the passages about Christ entering on the 10th of Nisan during Passion week, there is a connection. Is this significant - or just an idle word in the Bible? Since God does not speak idle, it must be significant. It's up to Spirit of God to reveal this to the reader.  

 

It is significant in that the Glory of the God of Israel came from the way of the east. This is how the Lord will reclaim his own. This is how he proved himself to be God to everyone. 

 

"And the earth shined with his glory". Christ said he was the "light of the world (John 8:12, 9:5)", and the he must work the works while it is day (John 9:4). If we visualized this, what would it look like? Maybe something we are seeing in Ezekiel? Yes!

 

 

To conclude this: 

Revelation says we will be kings and priests. But you are saying that really it will only be those believers from the line of Zadok? Do you have scripture to back this up?

 

These ideas that you are coming up with about sacrifices in the millennium seem to be a bit convoluted. 

[Guest shiloh357]

 

 

Yes, but it these sin offerings are for inanimate (non-living) things like the altar.  How can an altar commit sin?  It can't.  That means you need to adjust your understanding of what the term "sin offering" means in the context of an object that cannot sin.   The Bible tells us in the very passage you cite that the sin offerings are for the cleansing/consecration of the altar.  So your question is answered in the very passage you are referring to.

 

So it's a sin offering but not really for sin, since the atonement taking place is being applied to inanimate objects, which cannot sin, but still need atonement? It's an inanimate-object-sin-offering-not-for-sin-but-atonement-for-dead-things. Is this really what you are trying to feed the people of this forum. Or am I oversimplifying what you are saying? 

 

...and you want me to "adjust my understanding" to conform to yours? Dang, brother, that ain't gonna happen. 

 

 

The problem lies with the fact that you don't seem to understand the the concept of atonement is broader than you realize.  The Hebrew word is applied to consecrating inanimate objects.  You are seeing the phrase "sin offering" or the term "atonement" and you are able to only see one use of the term. 

 

Another "yes, but..."

 

 

I didn't say, "yes, but..."  Stop assigning things to me I didn't say.  There's this little thing called "integrity..."

 

You are agree that there will be need for animal sacrifices in the Millennial reign? 

 

 

Umm..I'm paying attention to verse 27

 

Eze 43:27 KJV - And when these days are expired, it shall be, that upon the eighth day, and so forward, the priests shall make your burnt offerings upon the altar, and your peace offerings; and I will accept you, saith the Lord GOD.

 

It is absolutely what these sacrifices and offerings are for. To be accepted by God - which will not be necessary in the millennial kingdom. 

 

What passages are you talking about?

 

Accept it has nothing to do with being accepted in terms of salvation, but for service.  Again, we are talking about consecration of the levites for service.  I don't see why that is a such a difficult concept for you to understand.

 

Shiloh, let's check what the actual passage says:

 

Eze 43:19 KJV - And thou shalt give to the priests the Levites that be of the seed of Zadok, which approach unto me, to minister unto me, saith the Lord GOD, a young bullock for a sin offering.

 

These are really "the Levites that be of the seed of Zadok". This I would classify as being specifically the seed (this doesn't need to be defined any further, does it?) from Zadok. Zadok, as you may or may not know, was one of the priests that was in office during the reign of King David (2 Sam 8:14-17). It appears as though his office was specific to the burning and atoning of sacrifices. He was also charged with taking the ark of the covenant back to Jerusalem when David was vacating (not willingly) the throne because of his son Absalom (2 Sam 15). 

 

I believe what we are seeing in these passages is:

1. reflection back on David's kingdom (and yes, the temple was not erected until Solomon), and;
2. how Christ will fulfill the promise to David. As we know, King David was a "man after God's own heart". God gave David promises that his line would rule from the throne forever and ever. This is fulfilled in the person of Jesus Christ. 

Furthermore, Ezekiel 40:1 gives the date as the 10th day "in the beginning of the year". I'm guessing the month would be Nisan (which on that day is the day the passover lamb was brought into the house Exodus 12:3), or Tishrei 10 which would be the day of atonement, (which ironically is today). Both significant days in the OT. I don't think that this should just be glossed over. 

 

Taking the position that this is Nisan 10, back to Ezekiel, after the description of the temple:

 

Eze 43:2-4 KJV - And, behold, the glory of the God of Israel came from the way of the east: and his voice was like a noise of many waters: and the earth shined with his glory.

- And it was according to the appearance of the vision which I saw, even according to the vision that I saw when I came to destroy the city: and the visions were like the vision that I saw by the river Chebar; and I fell upon my face.

- And the glory of the LORD came into the house by the way of the gate whose prospect is toward the east.

 

I think we can agree that this is talking about Christ. The question is: When? We know he came into Jerusalem on the 10th of Nisan riding on a colt. If we line up the timing of Ezekiel's vision with the passages about Christ entering on the 10th of Nisan during Passion week, there is a connection. Is this significant - or just an idle word in the Bible? Since God does not speak idle, it must be significant. It's up to Spirit of God to reveal this to the reader.  

 

It is significant in that the Glory of the God of Israel came from the way of the east. This is how the Lord will reclaim his own. This is how he proved himself to be God to everyone. 

 

"And the earth shined with his glory". Christ said he was the "light of the world (John 8:12, 9:5)", and the he must work the works while it is day (John 9:4). If we visualized this, what would it look like? Maybe something we are seeing in Ezekiel? Yes!

 

Okay, so at the end of all of that, what does that have to do with whether or not the Ezekiel Temple during the millennium will have sacrifices or not?

 

To conclude this: 

Revelation says we will be kings and priests. But you are saying that really it will only be those believers from the line of Zadok? Do you have scripture to back this up?

 

These ideas that you are coming up with about sacrifices in the millennium seem to be a bit convoluted. 

 

 

Yes we will.  So what did I say that contradicts the fact that stated in Ezekiel that there will be Jewish priests, Levites of the seed of Zadok?  I don't really see your conundrum.