House of Prayer for all Peoples

[firestormx]

Isaiah 56:7

even them will I bring to my holy mountain,
and make them joyful in my house of prayer:
their burnt offerings and their sacrifices shall be accepted upon mine altar;
for my house shall be called a house of prayer for all people.

 

Jesus quotes this verse I believe when he overturns the money changers tables and says they have made God's house a den of thieves. My question is this. If God's temple, his house, will be called a house of prayer for all people, how come only Jews can go into it? How can it be a House of prayer for all people if only one people can go in? If another temple was built, could Christians enter and not defile the temple according to God?

[Guest shiloh357]

2 hours ago, firestormx said:

Isaiah 56:7

even them will I bring to my holy mountain,
and make them joyful in my house of prayer:
their burnt offerings and their sacrifices shall be accepted upon mine altar;
for my house shall be called a house of prayer for all people.

 

Jesus quotes this verse I believe when he overturns the money changers tables and says they have made God's house a den of thieves. My question is this. If God's temple, his house, will be called a house of prayer for all people, how come only Jews can go into it? How can it be a House of prayer for all people if only one people can go in? If another temple was built, could Christians enter and not defile the temple according to God?

The Jewish people erected a lot of barriers that God never intended there to be in the Temple.  There were "court" that cordoned off women into one area and Gentiles into another area and it is not found in Scripture where God intended those barriers to exist in His temple.   He did expect everyone to adhere to rules and conduct of holiness associated with the temple, though.  

There is also a sense in which God is looking down through time to the future, when everyone would worship Him in spirit and in truth together as a living temple, as well.   The NT is rich in temple imagery when it comes to how it describes our worship of the Lord as both Gentiles and Jews as a corporate body of believers.

[nebula]

2 hours ago, firestormx said:

Isaiah 56:7

even them will I bring to my holy mountain,
and make them joyful in my house of prayer:
their burnt offerings and their sacrifices shall be accepted upon mine altar;
for my house shall be called a house of prayer for all people.

 

Jesus quotes this verse I believe when he overturns the money changers tables and says they have made God's house a den of thieves. My question is this. If God's temple, his house, will be called a house of prayer for all people, how come only Jews can go into it? How can it be a House of prayer for all people if only one people can go in? If another temple was built, could Christians enter and not defile the temple according to God?

Actually, the Temple had a "Court of the Gentiles" of which the Gentiles could enter. This was to be their place to seek the God of Israel. 

It does not say this in the passage, but from what I've heard it claimed by those who did some studying on the matter that the only court of the Temple this exchange of money could have been taking place in was the Court of the Gentiles. That means by having turned the Court of the Gentiles into a market, the Gentiles could no longer use the only court of the Temple they could enter as a place to pray to God.

Jesus quoting that verse gives a whole new meaning, then, doesn't it?

[firestormx]

9 hours ago, shiloh357 said:

The Jewish people erected a lot of barriers that God never intended there to be in the Temple.  There were "court" that cordoned off women into one area and Gentiles into another area and it is not found in Scripture where God intended those barriers to exist in His temple.   He did expect everyone to adhere to rules and conduct of holiness associated with the temple, though.  

There is also a sense in which God is looking down through time to the future, when everyone would worship Him in spirit and in truth together as a living temple, as well.   The NT is rich in temple imagery when it comes to how it describes our worship of the Lord as both Gentiles and Jews as a corporate body of believers.

 

I've been trying to do research on this subject to learn. Is there a specific verse in the bible preventing gentiles from entering the inner court? What was the biblical justification for the court of the gentiles? I have been looking but can't find biblical support for their position, Am I missing something? 

[firestormx]

9 hours ago, nebula said:

Actually, the Temple had a "Court of the Gentiles" of which the Gentiles could enter. This was to be their place to seek the God of Israel. 

It does not say this in the passage, but from what I've heard it claimed by those who did some studying on the matter that the only court of the Temple this exchange of money could have been taking place in was the Court of the Gentiles. That means by having turned the Court of the Gentiles into a market, the Gentiles could no longer use the only court of the Temple they could enter as a place to pray to God.

Jesus quoting that verse gives a whole new meaning, then, doesn't it?

 

Thank you for your post

[Guest shiloh357]

9 minutes ago, firestormx said:

I've been trying to do research on this subject to learn. Is there a specific verse in the bible preventing gentiles from entering the inner court? What was the biblical justification for the court of the gentiles? I have been looking but can't find biblical support for their position, Am I missing something? 

There is no biblical restriction on the Gentiles entering into the same areas as the Jews.   The Jews made that law up themselves.  It is an extra-biblical thing the Jews did.

[Guest shiloh357]

19 minutes ago, Yowm said:

Didn't the Gentile males have to be circumcised?...just wondering.

As far as participating in the Passover, yes.   Or, if they decided to convert to the Jewish religion, they also had to undergo circumcision.

[Ezra]

1 hour ago, firestormx said:

I've been trying to do research on this subject to learn. Is there a specific verse in the bible preventing gentiles from entering the inner court? What was the biblical justification for the court of the gentiles? I have been looking but can't find biblical support for their position, Am I missing something? 

While the Temple stood, Jews and Gentiles were regarded as being separate, since God had a covenant relationship with Israel. Therefore Gentiles were limited to the outer court.

As long as the Temple stood, it was a house of prayer for all people. Since the crucifixion of Christ (and the tearing down of the Temple veil), the creation of the Church (Jews and Gentiles in on one Body), and the destruction of the Temple in 70 AD, that concept was replaced by another one:

1. The Church became the Temple of God, with the gift of the Holy Spirit given to each believer (2 Cor 6:16).

2. Worship was no longer limited to the Temple, but was to be in Spirit and in truth (John 4:24) and anywhere on earth.

3. Christians enter directly into the Sanctuary in Heaven, where the throne of God sits, and which has now become the Throne of Grace (Heb 4:16).  This is far better than what was the case while the Temple stood.

There will be a Millennial Temple but that is in the future. But presently the Jews are planning a third Temple n Jerusalem, which will really be the Antichrist's.

[Ezra]

6 minutes ago, Yowm said:

 

One says 'no biblical restrictions, entering into the same areas'.

The other says,'limited to the outer court'.

Ok, which is it?

See Unger's Bible Dictionary (Temple -- the outer court): "...which could be frequented by Gentiles and unclean persons").

[firestormx]

1 hour ago, shiloh357 said:

There is no biblical restriction on the Gentiles entering into the same areas as the Jews.   The Jews made that law up themselves.  It is an extra-biblical thing the Jews did.

 

I always thought that was a biblical mandate . Thanks for clarifying