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ruck1b

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2 hours ago, eileenhat said:

I see one reason here why you might not see the NT,for instance as coming from God.  I mean from an atheist/cultural marxist viewpoint God does not exist and only men wrote the Bible, Yes?

I mean you have been told the Earth is a globe, we have evolved from apes, etc.  all discrediting the Old Testament.  So not really a stretch to think a few old guys made up the entire text, in your head.

No, not a stretch.

History and out peers and educators and family have always been our root.  That means they plant the seeds for our ideas, our ideologies.

But, if you have not begun to unravel all the lies we have been fed since the Beast system initiation in 1945 (the date I chose for it's inception due to Roosevelt and his co-conspirators being the Beast out of the Sea mentioned in Revelations, God showed me in vision this past year), you are still in that system of belief and nothing anyone will say will unblind you.

First you do have to begin to document the lies by your own research (hand).

Nothing less will work.

Then and only then might to appear to be able to reconcile within yourself the truth that if all you have been taught is a lie, then perhaps the opposite of what you believe is then the actual truth.

Dig or don't.  You will never find truth without getting dirty.

Well, the earth is a globe, and the Bible told us that before the scientists figured it out! It's amazing how well true science coincides with the Bible.

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13 hours ago, ruck1b said:

No where does it state that or even allude to everything written in those 66 books as his word. 

This statement shows that you have not really studied the Bible as it should be studied. As a matter of fact the Scripture quoted to you at the beginning (2 Tim 3:16,17) refutes your statement. The Bible also states dozens of times that it is the Word of God, and that the very words given to the original prophets (Hebrew) and apostles (Greek) were words from God.

Even the jots and tittles (minute Hebrew markings) were from God. As a result, the Hebrew scribes were extremely meticulous in transcribing the Scriptures, and counted every word and letter. Indeed, many believe today that the Torah has a "Bible code" hidden within it because the words are from God.  The Kabbalists gave a mystical significance to the words of the Torah.

At the very least, an honest individual will approach Scripture as the Word of God BEFORE he passes and judgment on it.  There are also multiple ways to establish and confirm that those 66 books were given by Divine inspiration, and in fact constitute one book with 66 divisions. For example, things mentioned in Genesis are also mentioned in Revelation, 

Furthermore, the Lord Jesus Christ -- who is God -- regarded the entire Hebrew Old Testament (Tanakh) as the Word of God. This was also the view of all the Jews of His day (even His enemies).  For those Jews, an appeal to Scripture was the final authority in any matter under discussion. The apostles (all Jews) then confirmed that the New Testament was also the Word of God.

What this means is that when you read the Bible, it is God telling you that what you are reading is from Him (regardless of the human writers).  Thus Scripture is regarded by conservative Christians as inerrant and also infallible -- God's truth.  But above and beyond the physical realm, the Bible is a spiritual book and can only be understood by the spirit, and through the Spirit of God.

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30 minutes ago, Ezra said:

 As a matter of fact the Scripture quoted to you at the beginning (2 Tim 3:16,17) refutes your statement. 

Oh Please tell me you didn't mean to quote this verse in support of the New Testament!

A little history seems appropriate; Paul was the first to write and circulate his letters. When 2Timothy was written no other New Testament Book was being circulated, therefore no writings compiled into a New Testament existed; they hadn't even been written yet! So now allow me to ask you exactly what "Scriptures" you think Paul was referring to?

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On 12/29/2016 at 4:37 PM, Dennis1209 said:

Many good sound doctrinal explanations here I totally agree with. I might add, prophecy is given so we may know what the future holds for us, and to prove God is whom He says He is. God lives outside of time and sees the past, present and future all at the same time. Literally hundreds of prophecies have been given in the Holy Bible. Many have already been come to pass and fulfilled with 100% accuracy, even verified by secular history and the unbelieving. Many are yet to be fulfilled, and you can be certain is will be fulfilled 100% accurate, 100% of the time. If that alone is not inspired to man from God, I don't know what is?

The wealth of knowledge and wisdom in the entire Bible alone, testifies that it is not of man, but the inspired word of God. These are just a couple of examples of the many that are obvious to those with faith and plainly seen.

The questions of the New Testament, etc...  Sounds like, how did we get our Bible and which versions to me? Is too lengthy and detailed to address, it would take a book and many have already been written. I would suggest for a short version to this question visit http://www.stewartonbibleschool.org

I really like the above post as is summarizes in brief the topic and even has a link for the reader to further his interest in the topic.  To really see how the might and power and the supernatural way God work, a reading of the book of Ezekiel should be studied.   God shows in vivid ways, how when he chooses his prophets and vessels, he does so at will and with absolute majestic ways that demonstrate his awesome Lordship. 

The Lord showed how he took complete control of Ezekiel, both body and spirit  and used him for his work.

 

Ezekiel 3King James Version (KJV)

Moreover he said unto me, Son of man, eat that thou findest; eat this roll, and go speak unto the house of Israel.

So I opened my mouth, and he caused me to eat that roll.

And he said unto me, Son of man, cause thy belly to eat, and fill thy bowels with this roll that I give thee. Then did I eat it; and it was in my mouth as honey for sweetness.

Ezekiel 2King James Version (KJV)

And the spirit entered into me when he spake unto me, and set me upon my feet, that I heard him that spake unto me.

 

HAPPY  NEW YEAR 2017 EVERYONE !!  

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7 hours ago, Zach said:

Oh Please tell me you didn't mean to quote this verse in support of the New Testament!

A little history seems appropriate; Paul was the first to write and circulate his letters. When 2Timothy was written no other New Testament Book was being circulated, therefore no writings compiled into a New Testament existed; they hadn't even been written yet! So now allow me to ask you exactly what "Scriptures" you think Paul was referring to?

He was referring to scripture as a whole, and it is applied to new testament scripture as well. If it were not then we could not believe what he had to say about the old testament as well. Fact of the matter Paul said "all" all is all inclusive. When you say it only means the old testament you are injecting your own interpretation into scripture that is in contradiction to what scripture actually says.

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36 minutes ago, The_Patriot2016 said:

He was referring to scripture as a whole, and it is applied to new testament scripture as well. If it were not then we could not believe what he had to say about the old testament as well. Fact of the matter Paul said "all" all is all inclusive. When you say it only means the old testament you are injecting your own interpretation into scripture that is in contradiction to what scripture actually says.

Nice to meet you Patriot, are you all Trumped up!!! I'm with you! Hahaha! Okay back to the topic at hand.

You realize of course the New Testament didn't exist then, right? Therefore I can only assume you mean to say; Paul was making a prophetic declaration about New Testament coming in the future?

However, just a thought; if Paul a Pharisee of Pharisee's thought he was writing Scripture equal to Torah,  then why didn't he write a book like Mohamed instead of sending a bunch of different letters to churches scattered amongst the Roman Empire?

 

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7 hours ago, Zach said:

Oh Please tell me you didn't mean to quote this verse in support of the New Testament!

A little history seems appropriate; Paul was the first to write and circulate his letters. When 2Timothy was written no other New Testament Book was being circulated, therefore no writings compiled into a New Testament existed; they hadn't even been written yet! So now allow me to ask you exactly what "Scriptures" you think Paul was referring to?

Not sure where you got this information, but you need to check your resources.  To say that none other of the NT books has "even been written yet" when 2 Timothy was written is false.  Again, check that source.  2 Timothy was written circa 65 AD, with James being written circa 50ish AD and some sources cite as early as the mid-40's AD.

  • 2 Timothy was the last letter that Paul wrote and some NT writings had been circulated prior to this writing.  Paul even cites the gospel of Luke in 1 Timothy 5, calling what Luke wrote "scripture".
  • Peter calls, in 2 Peter 3, ALL of what Paul wrote "scripture."

Much of the New Testament had been written by the time Paul reached his waning years and wrote 2 Timothy.  How much was in full circulation?  I don't know.  At least Luke was.  Probably more.

Paul claims to be writing "by the word of the Lord" in at least Galatians.  That's scripture.

 

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7 minutes ago, Zach said:

Nice to meet you Patriot, are you all Trumped up!!! I'm with you! Hahaha! Okay back to the topic at hand.

You realize of course the New Testament didn't exist then, right? Therefore I can only assume you mean to say; Paul was making a prophetic declaration about New Testament coming in the future?

However, just a thought; if Paul a Pharisee of Pharisee's thought he was writing Scripture equal to Torah,  then why didn't he write a book like Mohamed instead of sending a bunch of different letters to churches scattered amongst the Roman Empire?

 

Of course I realize it wasn't in existence then, however many of Pauls letters were and the gospels likely were to, though your correct in they likely were not in circulation.

However, it is safe to say that it was indeed a prophetic thing in that it included the 27 books of the new testament, after all if it was truly Inspired God new they were coming. And Paul did say His writings came from the Lord in multiple locations including Galatians like Jayne pointed out. So "all" really does mean Genesis through Revelation.

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1 minute ago, Jayne said:

Not sure where you got this information, but you need to check your resources.  To say that none other of the NT books has "even been written yet" when 2 Timothy was written is false.  Again, check that source.  2 Timothy was written circa 65 AD, with James being written circa 50ish AD and some sources cite as early as the mid-40's AD.

  • 2 Timothy was the last letter that Paul wrote and some NT writings had been circulated prior to this writing.  Paul even cites the gospel of Luke in 1 Timothy 5, calling what Luke wrote "scripture".
  • Peter calls, in 2 Peter 3, ALL of what Paul wrote "scripture."

Much of the New Testament had been written by the time Paul reached his waning years and wrote 2 Timothy.  How much was in full circulation?  I don't know.  At least Luke was.  Probably more.

Paul claims to be writing "by the word of the Lord" in at least Galatians.  That's scripture.

 

Great post Jayne, nice to meet you. Yes, I'm guilty of oversimplifying a bit for ease of delivery. But the statement stands. The NT as we know did not exist at the time of Paul's writings and 'much/majority' of it hadn't been written yet. Further more "scripture" means nothing else but "writings" therefore context has to determine if the meaning is the "Holy Scripture" or writings.

I read 1Timothy 5, I see no mention of Luke. If your meaning is that Paul quoted Luke, well in light of the fact they traveled together makes that rather meaningless.

No Peter is not placing Paul's writings on equal authority with "Holy Scripture". Peter just said people equally misinterpret Paul's writings. It is a greater to lessor statement like; 'if he lies to his own mother why don't you think he will lie to you?

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Guest shiloh357
8 hours ago, Zach said:

Oh Please tell me you didn't mean to quote this verse in support of the New Testament!

A little history seems appropriate; Paul was the first to write and circulate his letters. When 2Timothy was written no other New Testament Book was being circulated, therefore no writings compiled into a New Testament existed; they hadn't even been written yet! So now allow me to ask you exactly what "Scriptures" you think Paul was referring to?

Actually, the Gospels were in circulation and Paul quoted from Luke.  Paul instructed some of his letters to be circulated and Ephesians was an encyclical letter meaning that it was copied several times and sent to all of the churches.  The copy to the church at Ephesus is the one that survived for us to read.

II Timothy was written at the end of Paul's life just before he was martyred.  And Peter called Paul's letters Scripture.  Peter and Paul were martyred very close together, time-wise. 

There wasn't a canon, but Paul's letters and the Gospels and the General Epistles of John, Peter, James and Jude were circulated even before the end of the first century.

 

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