LadyKay Posted December 13, 2019 Group: Royal Member Followers: 12 Topic Count: 385 Topics Per Day: 0.10 Content Count: 7,692 Content Per Day: 1.93 Reputation: 4,809 Days Won: 3 Joined: 05/28/2013 Status: Offline Share Posted December 13, 2019 1 hour ago, Godismyloveforever said: Looks like op has no comment about this. This is why I say that I suspect that threads like these are made just to get everyone all worked up. They OP tosses something controversial out there and has nothing more to say about it. Just sit back and watch the fur fly. 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jaydog1976 Posted December 13, 2019 Group: Senior Member Followers: 12 Topic Count: 2 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 626 Content Per Day: 0.23 Reputation: 360 Days Won: 0 Joined: 10/24/2016 Status: Offline Share Posted December 13, 2019 2 hours ago, JustPassingThru said: I'm not arguing with you brother, ...but can't we say the Holy Spirit is what you and others are "referring" to as the "third" text, ...for me personally, ...I prefer to go to the Author whenever I have a "textual" problem? It's a simple prayer, "Holy Spirit, I don't understand the spiritual principle You are speaking about in this verse(s), ...please explain it to me, ...sometimes He does so immediately, ...and sometimes He has to explain other things to me before I can understand His answer to my question... Lord bless I never referred or implied that the third text that is needed is the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit helps us understand scripture regardless if it is the KJV or other versions. However I do agree that if we come up to something in scripture we do not understand that we ask the Lord for wisdom so that we can understand what He is trying to say to us through the passage that we are reading. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
The_Patriot21 Posted December 13, 2019 Group: Worthy Ministers Followers: 28 Topic Count: 338 Topics Per Day: 0.05 Content Count: 15,710 Content Per Day: 2.46 Reputation: 8,526 Days Won: 39 Joined: 10/25/2006 Status: Offline Birthday: 02/27/1985 Share Posted December 13, 2019 7 hours ago, Jaydog1976 said: That was my point. We have 2 main Greek texts that are used. I understand that there are fragments of greek texts that are used to make the 2 main ones. What I was driving at is that there isn't a 3rd main text that supports one or the other. It is hard to compare 2 texts without having a tie breaker. Otherwise it is a serious waste of time to say one is better than the other without knowing what we are comparing them against. Well, they did use others to compare. The two texts that are used primarily by modern translators are just the primary texts as those 2 are considered by most scholars to not only be the most complete-but the oldest, available. However, they still used other texts to fill in gaps as well as compare to those for accuracy. The argument stems because the KJV did not use those texts, they were not available at the time. So really the only way to 100% prove one over the other is to have the original. Honestly though, the Latin Vulgate is probably a good comparison tool, as it likely was translated from the original Greek lol. 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
WBO Posted December 13, 2019 Group: Members Followers: 1 Topic Count: 6 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 32 Content Per Day: 0.02 Reputation: 8 Days Won: 0 Joined: 02/02/2019 Status: Offline Birthday: 09/05/1993 Author Share Posted December 13, 2019 I want to say that what lead me to realizing that the KJV was God’s perfect word was simply knowing that our loving God was not out to confuse. The Holy Ghost was with me around the time I figured this out. The evidence came later. All I can say is that you all ask the Holy Ghost to reveal whether this is true or not true. Ask in a pure heart. Not to win a debate. Is the King James Version Bible the Perfect Word of God. If you come to the conclusion that the The KJV is the perfect Word of God, you will gain more comfort, trust and confidence in the truth that the Bible means exactly what it says. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
LadyKay Posted December 13, 2019 Group: Royal Member Followers: 12 Topic Count: 385 Topics Per Day: 0.10 Content Count: 7,692 Content Per Day: 1.93 Reputation: 4,809 Days Won: 3 Joined: 05/28/2013 Status: Offline Share Posted December 13, 2019 1 hour ago, WBO said: If you come to the conclusion that the The KJV is the perfect Word of God, you will gain more comfort, trust and confidence in the truth that the Bible means exactly what it says. I have come to that conclusion by not only reading the KJV of the Bible. But by reading and studying a translation of the Bible that I can understand. I don't think that anyone should think of themselves as more holy or more righteous than someone else based on what translation of the Bible they use. But that is how you are coming off here. Rather you mean too or not. That is something to think about. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jayne Posted December 14, 2019 Group: Royal Member Followers: 16 Topic Count: 107 Topics Per Day: 0.04 Content Count: 3,820 Content Per Day: 1.30 Reputation: 4,806 Days Won: 2 Joined: 03/31/2016 Status: Offline Share Posted December 14, 2019 29 minutes ago, Cletus said: its common sense that the KJV and the greek version it is derived from is "more better" once you see the NIV has a lot of stuff missing. hundreds of things missing. again... things which hold significant spiritual importance. For the NIV to have "left out" verses, the NIV and the King James would had to have been translated from the same document and verses intentionally removed. This is what you are making it sound like. The King James, while written earlier, was based on newer texts. The NIV and others, while written later, were based on much earlier texts discovered after the King James was written. So, the more logical thing to say is that verses were added to the newer texts by scribes - [possibly even marginal notes] and that it why the King James has a few extra words or verses. I have no problem with any of this. Why? Apparently God does not. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
WBO Posted December 14, 2019 Group: Members Followers: 1 Topic Count: 6 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 32 Content Per Day: 0.02 Reputation: 8 Days Won: 0 Joined: 02/02/2019 Status: Offline Birthday: 09/05/1993 Author Share Posted December 14, 2019 (edited) 4 hours ago, LadyKay said: I have come to that conclusion by not only reading the KJV of the Bible. But by reading and studying a translation of the Bible that I can understand. I don't think that anyone should think of themselves as more holy or more righteous than someone else based on what translation of the Bible they use. But that is how you are coming off here. Rather you mean too or not. That is something to think about. This is a topic that has very significant importance and this is a bible study forum. My tone may have been not liked, but I am very passionate about this topic and the Bible. I been scoffed at by mostly all that has commented but I’m okay with it. Also I don’t consider KJV only believers more righteous than others. The topic means a lot more to me personally because of my church background. My past church exalted the Greek and Hebrew so much that I didn’t trust the plain text. And that did a lot of damage to my walk with God. Edited December 14, 2019 by WBO 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
LadyKay Posted December 14, 2019 Group: Royal Member Followers: 12 Topic Count: 385 Topics Per Day: 0.10 Content Count: 7,692 Content Per Day: 1.93 Reputation: 4,809 Days Won: 3 Joined: 05/28/2013 Status: Offline Share Posted December 14, 2019 46 minutes ago, WBO said: This is a topic that has very significant importance and this is a bible study forum. My tone may have been not liked, but I am very passionate about this topic and the Bible. I been scoffed at by mostly all that has commented but I’m okay with it. Also I don’t consider KJV only believers more righteous than others. The topic means a lot more to me personally because of my church background. My past church exalted the Greek and Hebrew so much that I didn’t trust the plain text. And that did a lot of damage to my walk with God. Well one is free to read and study whatever translation of the Bible that they choice. But I am a person that goes by facts. And the fact of the matter is that the KJV Bible does indeed contain errors in it translations. The reason why the NIV differs is because the NIV is a more accurate translation compared to the King James. And yes there are translations that are more accurate then the NIV I am sure. For example, the King James uses the word "Easter" when the original Greek word is "pascha" and refers to "Passover", not "Easter". None of this changes the very important message of God and salvation. But to say that the King James is without translation errors is simply untrue. Now I am happy for you that you find the King James translation of the Bible fits right for you. And no one should tell you that you need to change to another translation. So we really should not have any disagreement here about that. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
LadyKay Posted December 14, 2019 Group: Royal Member Followers: 12 Topic Count: 385 Topics Per Day: 0.10 Content Count: 7,692 Content Per Day: 1.93 Reputation: 4,809 Days Won: 3 Joined: 05/28/2013 Status: Offline Share Posted December 14, 2019 8 minutes ago, Cletus said: the more logical thing to say is that the NIV is missing stuff. The reason why things are missing from the NIV compared to the King James is because they should have never been in the King James in the first place. The verses or phrases that appeared in the KJV, but have been omitted in most translations today, are not found in the oldest and most reliable manuscripts. Modern translators include or reference them in footnotes. But most important is that no doctrines of the Christian faith are affected by differences between the KJV and translations such as the NIV. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
WBO Posted December 14, 2019 Group: Members Followers: 1 Topic Count: 6 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 32 Content Per Day: 0.02 Reputation: 8 Days Won: 0 Joined: 02/02/2019 Status: Offline Birthday: 09/05/1993 Author Share Posted December 14, 2019 17 minutes ago, LadyKay said: Well one is free to read and study whatever translation of the Bible that they choice. But I am a person that goes by facts. And the fact of the matter is that the KJV Bible does indeed contain errors in it translations. The reason why the NIV differs is because the NIV is a more accurate translation compared to the King James. And yes there are translations that are more accurate then the NIV I am sure. For example, the King James uses the word "Easter" when the original Greek word is "pascha" and refers to "Passover", not "Easter". None of this changes the very important message of God and salvation. But to say that the King James is without translation errors is simply untrue. Now I am happy for you that you find the King James translation of the Bible fits right for you. And no one should tell you that you need to change to another translation. So we really should not have any disagreement here about that. Acts 12:1-4 King James Version (KJV) 12 Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church. 2 And he killed James the brother of John with the sword. 3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) 4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. According to verse 3 Herod arrests Peter during the Days of Unleavened Bread! Which is always after Passover and it last 7 days. So when we get to verse 4 it’s impossible for the word Passover to be correct. The Passage only proves that The KJV is more superior than the Greek and Hebrew both. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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