Matthew 5:32

[Guest Sean73]

In the Catholic Bible Matthew 5:32 says "But I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawfull) causes her to commit adultery,..." NAB. In the Protestant NIV bible it replaces"(unless the marriage is unlawfull)" with "except for marital unfaithfullness". Why the difference?

[halifaxchristian]

Different manuscripts.

I read ONLY the Textus Receptus manuscripts. They are the manuscripts that God preserved through peasents and underground believers. The common people had only these manuscripts to study when the Bible was outlawed by the RCC. Only the priests had the authority to read God's Word. Most of the time, the Bible wasn't even read to the laymen in their own tongue. Thus, the dark ages.

The NIV and Catholic Bibles are based on Alexandrian, Vulgate, Aleph, Oleph, etc., texts which were HIDDEN away in caves and/or the Vatican library for hundreds of years while the Textus Receptus flourished on mountaintops and in remote villages, etc.

The ONLY reason you can read these manuscripts today is because the RCC could not put out the fire, so they try to take your eyes off of it with their own rendition...

The King James Bible is the only Bible today that is based on these Textus Receptus manuscripts. Prior to the KJV there was the Tydale, Wycliff, Matthias, Geneva, etc., Bibles which were also based on the TR manuscripts. However, the KJ is more sufficient and in wider use than these versions, most of which are out of popular print.

God bless.

Edited August 2, 2005 by halifaxchristian

[apothanein kerdos]

The Alexandrian texts are older than the Textus Receptus...so how are they corrupt?

Anyway, I find it funn you attack the NIV when it is the NIV that disagrees with the Catholic text

Overall, turning to the Greek we see the phrase parektos logou poiei which into our modern tongue would read, "except for the reason of immorality".

In essence, the two mean the same, unlawful can and does mean immoral.

[halifaxchristian]

The Alexandrian texts are older than the Textus Receptus...so how are they corrupt?

Edited October 9, 2005 by IslandRose

[apothanein kerdos]

The Alexandrian texts are older than the Textus Receptus...so how are they corrupt?

Edited October 9, 2005 by IslandRose

[halifaxchristian]

Super Jew, open the bag of worms then, my friend...we're going fishing!

I am going to sleep now, but I have tomorrow off. I will study your post in the morning and reply appropriately. Until then, I'll be thinking of ways to prove you wrong... Ha ha...

Looking forward to reading your post.

God bless (the Textus Receptus...had to sneak that in there!)!!!

[halifaxchristian]

The Alexandrian texts are older than the Textus Receptus...so how are they corrupt?

Edited October 9, 2005 by IslandRose

[JesusisGod2]

The Alexandrian texts are older than the Textus Receptus...so how are they corrupt?

[Constant]

I know Greek! I am in the process of learning this book called Baptism and Chrismation. Whoa, hard read lol.

I always understood that if a spouse was unfaithful in the marriage, the faithful one can divorce. Neither one of them could remarry until one dies. I may be wrong but that was my understanding.

[apothanein kerdos]

I am by no means a Greek scholar (far, far, far from it) but I do have a knowledge of Greek and hope to one day be a Greek scholar...so maybe I can help?

Anyway, porneia doesn't just mean "incest". It means sexual immorality, or a whole host of immorality. Homosexuality, pre-marrital sex, and beastiality are just some of the immoral things included in this word. There are different Greek words for each one, however porneia simply covers them all. In other words, Jesus is saying that if someone is sexually immoral in any way throughout marriage, there is grounds for divorce.

Again, there isn't a difference between the two translations. Both say the same thing only with different words