Your closest friendnt Posted October 25, 2021 Group: Royal Member Followers: 18 Topic Count: 8 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 7,854 Content Per Day: 2.42 Reputation: 2,761 Days Won: 3 Joined: 06/05/2015 Status: Offline Share Posted October 25, 2021 48 minutes ago, Josheb said: So the "seed" or "descendant" of David is not a sperm but the "seed" or descendant of a woman is an ovum? Was Jesus Christ from Nazareth? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
appy Posted October 25, 2021 Group: Royal Member Followers: 23 Topic Count: 133 Topics Per Day: 0.03 Content Count: 2,864 Content Per Day: 0.62 Reputation: 2,596 Days Won: 2 Joined: 08/07/2011 Status: Offline Share Posted October 25, 2021 Sin is NOT a physical and tangible thing or matter that we can hold in our hands and examine. It is NOT anything physical. Sin is a heart and mind issue. Sin is any wrong thought, deed or action that is contrary to the will and character of God. Having a sin nature refers to the fact that we have a natural inclination to sin. Given an option to please God or ourselves, we naturally choose to do our own thing. Sin in NOT a gene. What Adam passed on to all is the propensity to sin. Yes, Eve sinned, however scripture teaches that God imputed Adam's sin to all mankind because Adam is the head and representative (federal headship) of all mankind so to speak. Adam’s sin brought condemnation on all. Scripture definitely implies that death and separation began with Adam's sin, and thus all mankind inherited Adam's sin nature. Scripture does not explain how sin nature; is passed on to all the rest of mankind. Only that it is. And this helps us to understand the truth that Jesus' righteousness can be imputed to sinners due to His grace just as Adam's sin has been imputed to all mankind. Since God ascribed sin through Adam. The “nature” is passed on through the line of men and NOT women. You will not find anywhere in scripture that Eve was held responsible for causing all the rest of mankind to sin. It was ascribed to Adam alone. The bible teaches that males are the head and representatives of mankind. And so Mary being a sinner herself did not affect Jesus nature. This is why Jesus in his humanity was sinless. Romans 5:12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world Romans 5:17-19 For if, by the trespass of the one man, death reigned through that one man Romans 5:17-19 For if, by the trespass of the one man, death reigned through that one man, 1 Corinthians 15:21,22 For since death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead comes also through a man. For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Your closest friendnt Posted October 25, 2021 Group: Royal Member Followers: 18 Topic Count: 8 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 7,854 Content Per Day: 2.42 Reputation: 2,761 Days Won: 3 Joined: 06/05/2015 Status: Offline Share Posted October 25, 2021 20 minutes ago, appy said: Sin is NOT a physical and tangible thing or matter that we can hold in our hands and examine. It is NOT anything physical. Sin is a heart and mind issue. Sin is any wrong thought, deed or action that is contrary to the will and character of God. Having a sin nature refers to the fact that we have a natural inclination to sin. Given an option to please God or ourselves, we naturally choose to do our own thing. Sin in NOT a gene. What Adam passed on to all is the propensity to sin. Yes, Eve sinned, however scripture teaches that God imputed Adam's sin to all mankind because Adam is the head and representative (federal headship) of all mankind so to speak. Adam’s sin brought condemnation on all. Scripture definitely implies that death and separation began with Adam's sin, and thus all mankind inherited Adam's sin nature. Scripture does not explain how sin nature; is passed on to all the rest of mankind. Only that it is. And this helps us to understand the truth that Jesus' righteousness can be imputed to sinners due to His grace just as Adam's sin has been imputed to all mankind. Since God ascribed sin through Adam. The “nature” is passed on through the line of men and NOT women. You will not find anywhere in scripture that Eve was held responsible for causing all the rest of mankind to sin. It was ascribed to Adam alone. The bible teaches that males are the head and representatives of mankind. And so Mary being a sinner herself did not affect Jesus nature. This is why Jesus in his humanity was sinless. Romans 5:12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world Romans 5:17-19 For if, by the trespass of the one man, death reigned through that one man Romans 5:17-19 For if, by the trespass of the one man, death reigned through that one man, 1 Corinthians 15:21,22 For since death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead comes also through a man. For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive. Romans 5:17 by the trespass of Adam, death reigned through that one man. What we are supposed to understand? (That we are in Adam and death reigns over us the way it reigned over Adam...) How death reigned over Adam? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
appy Posted October 25, 2021 Group: Royal Member Followers: 23 Topic Count: 133 Topics Per Day: 0.03 Content Count: 2,864 Content Per Day: 0.62 Reputation: 2,596 Days Won: 2 Joined: 08/07/2011 Status: Offline Share Posted October 25, 2021 54 minutes ago, appy said: God imputed Adam's sin to all mankind because Adam is the head and representative (federal headship) of all mankind so to speak. 54 minutes ago, appy said: The bible teaches that males are the head and representatives of mankind. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David1701 Posted October 25, 2021 Group: Royal Member Followers: 8 Topic Count: 15 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 5,731 Content Per Day: 3.55 Reputation: 3,522 Days Won: 12 Joined: 11/27/2019 Status: Offline Share Posted October 25, 2021 13 hours ago, Your closest friendnt said: Mary when she said that Jesus was not conceived yet, to say that she was referring to Jesus when she said God my Savior is quite unlikely, it is impossible. She lived during the times when the Israelites were still in the Sinai Covenant, about thirty five years till the New Covenant of Jesus Christ. For this matter her words "God my Savior" at that time were not towards to conceived yet Jesus Christ but towards to the God, the God of Abraham, Issac and Jacob, the God who deliver the Israelites out of Egypt, the God of Israel and Moses and Samuel and David and so on...the Lord God they Nation of Israel was worshiping that time while they were in the Covenant of Sinai with him. And which Covenant was still in effect and will still be in effect for approximately another thirty five years till the death of Jesus Christ. 45 And blessed is she that believed: for there shall be a performance of those things which were told her from the Lord. Luke 1:46-55 46 And Mary said, My soul doth magnify the Lord,47 And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour.48 For he hath regarded the low estate of his handmaiden: for, behold, from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed. 49 For he that is mighty hath done to me great things; and holy is his name 50 And his mercy is on them that fear him from generation to generation.51 He hath shewed strength with his arm; he hath scattered the proud in the imagination of their hearts.52 He hath put down the mighty from their seats, and exalted them of low degree.53 He hath filled the hungry with good things; and the rich he hath sent empty away.54 He hath helped his servant Israel, in remembrance of his mercy; 55 As he spake to our fathers, to Abraham, and to his seed for ever. When Mary referred to "God my Saviour", she was referring to God, not only one Person of the Godhead. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Your closest friendnt Posted October 25, 2021 Group: Royal Member Followers: 18 Topic Count: 8 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 7,854 Content Per Day: 2.42 Reputation: 2,761 Days Won: 3 Joined: 06/05/2015 Status: Offline Share Posted October 25, 2021 1 hour ago, David1701 said: When Mary referred to "God my Saviour", she was referring to God, not only one Person of the Godhead. What is "the Godhead", is it one word or two words together? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Your closest friendnt Posted October 25, 2021 Group: Royal Member Followers: 18 Topic Count: 8 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 7,854 Content Per Day: 2.42 Reputation: 2,761 Days Won: 3 Joined: 06/05/2015 Status: Offline Share Posted October 25, 2021 (edited) 3 hours ago, Josheb said: If I may (don't want to step on your toes, David), Godhead = Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Greek: "theotētos". "Theos" = God; "tētos" = head. Godhead. Colossians 2:9 KJV "For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily." ὅτι because ἐv in αὐτῷ him εὐδόκησεν He was pleased for πᾶν all τὸ the πλήρωμα fullness κατοικῆσαι to dwell * Colossians 1:19 New American Standard Bible For it was the [Father's] good pleasure for all the fullness to dwell in Him, King James Bible For it pleased [the Father] that in him should all fulness dwell; Parallel Verses International Standard Version For God was pleased to have all of his divine essence inhabit him. American Standard Version For it was the good pleasure of the Father that in him should all the fulness dwell; Edited October 25, 2021 by Your closest friendnt 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
In Him Posted October 26, 2021 Group: Diamond Member Followers: 0 Topic Count: 4 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 1,140 Content Per Day: 0.63 Reputation: 221 Days Won: 0 Joined: 05/02/2019 Status: Offline Share Posted October 26, 2021 (edited) 1 hour ago, Your closest friendnt said: ὅτι because ἐv in αὐτῷ him εὐδόκησεν He was pleased for πᾶν all τὸ the πλήρωμα fullness κατοικῆσαι to dwell * Colossians 1:19 New American Standard Bible For it was the [Father's] good pleasure for all the fullness to dwell in Him, King James Bible For it pleased [the Father] that in him should all fulness dwell; Parallel Verses International Standard Version For God was pleased to have all of his divine essence inhabit him. American Standard Version For it was the good pleasure of the Father that in him should all the fulness dwell; Complete Jewish Bible Col 1:19 For it pleased God to have his full being live in his Son Col 2:9 For in him, bodily, lives the fullness of all that God is. Edited October 26, 2021 by In Him 1 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Your closest friendnt Posted October 26, 2021 Group: Royal Member Followers: 18 Topic Count: 8 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 7,854 Content Per Day: 2.42 Reputation: 2,761 Days Won: 3 Joined: 06/05/2015 Status: Offline Share Posted October 26, 2021 (edited) On 10/25/2021 at 8:37 PM, In Him said: Complete Jewish Bible Col 1:19 For it pleased God to have his full being live in his Son Col 2:9 For in him, bodily, lives the fullness of all that God is. This is it "the fullness of all that God is, or God has". God gave to Jesus Christ everything he had, all his theotis, all he had. The fullness of his theotis. In some translation they "his Godhead", everything God knew his knowledge through his Spirit. He did not do that to one of the great Angels but he did that to a man the man Jesus Christ. Who is in the from of man who has a body...who was made lower than the Angels. This is what Paul is trying to empathize...this is interesting because Gods powers through Jesus Christ worked also through Paul and the disciples who were men and not Angels... Peter spoke and the man died and not only him but also his wife...the other time one of them spoke and the man was engulf in his spiritual darkness as a witness to the Roman Captain that he and not the sorcerer had the light of God.... The fulness of God is given to Jesus Christ, It please God to give to Jesus Christ all that he had... Thank you for posting. God bless Edited October 29, 2021 by Your closest friendnt 2 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David1701 Posted October 26, 2021 Group: Royal Member Followers: 8 Topic Count: 15 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 5,731 Content Per Day: 3.55 Reputation: 3,522 Days Won: 12 Joined: 11/27/2019 Status: Offline Share Posted October 26, 2021 On 10/25/2021 at 9:21 PM, Your closest friendnt said: What is "the Godhead", is it one word or two words together? Godhead comes from middle English "godhede" (godhood) and is not to do with the modern word "head" at all. It refers to the essence or nature of God. Col. 2:9 (KJV) For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. In Christ dwells all the fulness of God's nature bodily. This shows, beyond doubt, that the Lord Jesus Christ is fully God and fully man. Unlike Christians, who only have God dwelling in us, the Lord Jesus Christ actually IS God and man, having both natures. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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