Polygamy, Where is it forbidden specifically

[Smalcald]

It makes no sense to say the two will become one flesh, then broaden the language to mean wives in the plural...

It depends on what you think "becoming one flesh" means. I Corinthians 6:16 tells us:

"What? Know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? For two, saith he, shall be one flesh."

It appears that marriage is not required to become one flesh...rather, sex is. And how many men can become "one flesh" with the same harlot?

...it does not fit with His (Christ's) description of leaving your wife, it is pointed at the singular meaning of that word.

Right...because it is wrong to leave your wife. Whether the first or second etc, it is wrong to leave any. If I say it is wrong to abuse your child you would understand that I imply as many children as you have. The passage you refer to has nothing to do with polygamy, though, either in support or denouncement. It has to do with divorce.

...I think that non-polygamy is assumed in the New Testament Church.

Then why does Paul see fit to require Bishops and Deacons to be the husband of one wife if it is assumed that all Christian men should be so?

In Christ,

Eric

*Edit: typos

Well I think those are good points, although I still think from the language Christ is talking about one women, particularly with becoming one flesh, which is why promiscuity is so disgusting as you join your soul with a harlot or harlots. But as far as Bishops and Elders go, what does being the husband of one wife mean? It could mean a prohibition of polygamy, but it could also mean a prohibition from having more than one wife over your lifetime, which would tie back to Christ's total denial of divorce, you would if you divorced your wife, have more than one wife. It can be seen either way.

But lets go back to what I think is a clear passage that deals with this and insert the plural wives, to check to if that passage makes sense speaking of multiple wives.

[Guest LadyC]

The reason this keeps coming up is there is no specific prohibition against polygamy in the Bible. Scriptures in Malachi have nothing to do with polygamy. Jesus while not mentioning a situation where anyone would have more than one wife did not prohibit the practice. Also at that time, it was not a common practice. The only one's prohibited from having more than one wife were bishops and deacons.

Also Solomon's problems were not so much because he had many wives but because they were idol worshippers that led him into commiting idolatry. You can see where I wrote more on this subject under the thread "God's View of Polygamy" starting with post #15. In addition to showing the practice is not forbidden, it also shows God made regulations for the practice in the law and approved of David having more than one wife, with the exception of his adulterous relationship with Bathsheba.

That being said, while it is not forbidden in scripture, it is illegal in America and we must obey the laws of the land. In addition, it has proven to be a problem for nearly everyone involved in such marriages in the Bible. Personally, I believe one man and one woman is the best way to go, but I also do not believe in making something Biblically wrong because it is the P.C. thing to do.

excellent poost butero. people tend to put words in God's mouth (or book, i should say) based on their own understanding. but scripture clearly indicates that we are not to lean unto our own understanding, because God's ways are not our ways. God has never condemned a man having multiple wives. in fact, i believe God said to david (or maybe it was solomon, but i think He said it to david in reprimand of his adultrous and murderous affair...) that HE had given him all the wives he'd taken unto his bosom. each wife, and their were many, was a direct gift of God to the recipient. hardly the gift of a disapproving God.

i should reitierate though, that God is very opposed to disobeying the laws of the land.