Polygamy

[Lionroot]

Now, what does Paul say in the NT regarding marriage of ONE man and ONE woman?

Nothing at all, you cannot locate a single verse that has both terms in it.

[firehill]

That Esther was married to a pagan king and a polygynist bride has nothing to do with wether or not women are to model such behavior. No one can take the story of Esther and say, see there ya go, go model her, marry a pagan king who is a polygamist. That's my point and it is so because that its not what the bible teaches.

Striking though, that a whole book can be written about the umpteenth bride of a Polygynist King and she behaves perfectly. This blows up the notion that Polygyny and Strife are linked or that Polygyny doesn't go down smoothly. In fact Mordecai chastens Esther in her hesitation saying God placed her where she was precisely for the purpose she then executes.

Yeah, God used her and she worked within her culture and so did God. This doesn't blow up the notion that polygamy and strife are linked because those things are connected all throughout scrioture. You can't just discard those scriptures. Esthers case was different and God used her. So what? That's right, she knew God placed her there.

We might also move on to the Song of Songs (Solomon) which is about one of several wives of Solomon. Why do books get written about Polygynist women whose Polygyny figures prominently in the story? Wanna hear my proof that Boaz was already married? That would make THREE books. No comment at all from God? Why are both Esther and Mordecai, who were willing to lose their lives over principle willing to make Esther the WHORE of the King? Isn't the answer that she was his wife, not a whore and that God thrust her by his purpose and plan into that role?

You lost me here. These examples you speak of have nothing to do with polygamy being moraly good. It was cultural. So what?

[Guest Biblicist]

There's no way to "divide" a man up, I'm sure you know that.

I can think of a few ways to "divide" a man up!

[firehill]

Now, what does Paul say in the NT regarding marriage of ONE man and ONE woman?

Nothing at all, you cannot locate a single verse that has both terms in it.

I can show a passage that according to context specificaly speaks of a monogomous marriage, i.e. one man and one woman. The context supports the teaching. context, context, context. What context cannot support is a presupposition for eaxmple.

[Guest Biblicist]

Is this your way of avoiding an answer to a direct question?

I'm not an advocate of Polygamy. Care to guess what I am an advocate of?

That's all I really wanted to know, I am not fond of guessing games. If you can't come right out and say what you are for or against, I'm not interested in knowing. Thanks anyway.

[firehill]

There's no way to "divide" a man up, I'm sure you know that.

I can think of a few ways to "divide" a man up!

Me too.

[firehill]

Really simply the bible teaches that the wife has authority over her husbands body. Therefore once he is married she has authority over what he does with his body. She says 'you cannot marry another' then guess what her authority stands.

[Guest Biblicist]

Has this been covered?

1 Timothy 3:2 Now the overseer must be above reproach, the husband of but one wife, temperate, self-controlled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach,

Any man who wishes to be an overseer in a church must follow certain requirements.

[firehill]

The culture she came from was created by God after Israel had the "Egypt" kicked out of them all up and down the Sinai.

Show this from scripture then. Culture is always always always a product of man.

Rome had no problem with a concept of monogamy yet God was afraid to tell his people, whom he killed instantly in some cases by the thousands that he didn't think Polygyny was a good idea?

Why don't you stick to the scriptures. God dealt with his people his way. What you just said, has nothing to do with polygamy being a moral good. So what?

God didn't just use Esther, he actively placed her where she was.

Yes, God didn't just use her he placed her. God placed her there though she was already in a culture where polygamy was acceptable.

So is your new position then, "Polygyny and strife are sometimes linked, but not always?"

Where it's linked it linked where it's not it not.

Oh come on firehill. WHOLE books are written about Polygynist marriages without negative comment in the Old Testament and you don't think that is signifigant? Are you now tearing "Song of Songs" out of your Bible? Most people have, effectively speaking, as they never teach from it or talk about it.

Look if you can prove that polygamy is a moral good then case is closed but you cannot. I can prove that a husband doesn't have authority over his own body because the wife does therefore he cannot do whatever he wants with his sexuality that is, marry another woman.

[Guest Biblicist]

That's all I really wanted to know, I am not fond of guessing games. If you can't come right out and say what you are for or against, I'm not interested in knowing. Thanks anyway.

Ok, I"m an advocate of Polygyny. Polygamy and Polygyny are not synonyms and I'm not misspelling Polygamy.

Polygyny ~ 1.the practice or condition of having more than one wife at one time.

Polygamy ~ 1.the practice or condition of having more than one spouse, esp. wife, at one time.

They words are not synonyms? They sound like the same meaning to me!

I'm wondering how many women take more than one husband. How come this is not practiced?