101G

Addressing the OP only. a few things come to mind about Evolution and Man. NOTHING, Point #1. for if man evolved then you're saying that God evolved. for man was made in God image. and God did not evolved. which bring me to, Point #2. man was made before all the animals was brought forth. for man was made on DAY 3. you gave the correct scripture, Genesis 2:4 "These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the LORD God made the earth and the heavens," Genesis 2:5 "And every plant of the field before it was in the earth, and every herb of the field before it grew: for the LORD God had not caused it to rain upon the earth, and there was not a man to till the ground." Genesis 2:6 "But there went up a mist from the earth, and watered the whole face of the ground." Genesis 2:7 "And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul." ok, what day was the plants, grass, and herbs came upon the EARTH? day 3, see Genesis 1:9-13. so man was "formed" before these things came upon the earth. and notice man was here befor any sea animals, so no, man did not come from the sea either. and man was here before any land animals, so we don't have any monkeys as an uncle, nor any anuties in any trees. the first man God made was a "DEAD" man, hence the breath of life to enter. that's easy, Adam and Eve had children in the Garden before they had Cain and Able ourside the Garden. supportive scriptures, Genesis 3:16, and Genesis 3:20. knowing this, ihat Adam and Eve had children before the fall answers where Cain got his wife, and it also answer who the Sons of God are in Genesis chapter 6. PICJAG.

Addressing the OP only. I believe that the Book of Genesis Account is real. but understand that this is a "CREATED" world. not the real one... but the events that is recorded is real. even when symbolism, an analogy, metaphor, or when a simile, ect are used, the record is a recorded event. History, created, or not is a record of an event. only the understanding of the event is the problem to most. but if one have theHoly Ghost, he will lead us into all truth. the truth is, "ye have not because ye ask not". PICJAG.

did the Lord Jesus stop being God? no, Hebrews 13:8 "Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever." so he is God. well let's see if he said "I PRAY TO the Father". no in pray he said, I pray the Father. now show in prayer where he said "I pray to the Father?", scripture please. not trying, as we gave the example, Genesis 22:11 "And the angel of the LORD called unto him out of heaven, and said, Abraham, Abraham: and he said, Here am I."Genesis 22:12 "And he said, Lay not thine hand upon the lad, neither do thou any thing unto him: for now I know that thou fearest God, seeing thou hast not withheld thy son, thine only son from me." did God say that abraham was withholding his Son from him yes or no. no, the angel said that for God. so who's trying to twist the scriptures. the bible said "a" voice, it didn't say the Father spoke, you assumed that. seeing that we addressed your questions, are you going to address the Genesis 1:26 & 27 question? PICJAG.

lets advance this discussion futher. SINCE SPEAKING IN THE "plural", this is a good way to understand the topic as to who raised our Lord Jesus up. scripture, Genesis 1:26 "And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth." here we have the plurality of God, correct? well lets see. for the very next verse states this. Genesis 1:27 "So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them." question, how did God go from "US" and "OUR" in verse 26 which a plurality, to "HIS" and "HE" in verse 27 which is a singularity of person. NOW, one question, just one question. did more than one person make man as Genesis 1:26 points out or did God who is one person make man, which one? please read both scriptures again. and note, we're using the KJV of the bible. looking to hear your answer. PICJAG.

KJV not to, but with, "to" only in intersession for someone else. and that "with" is with his diversified self, or as G243 allos states his numerical difference that is in flesh. the answer is right in the scripture ... "a" ... voice came from heaven. you are still not getting it ... are you listening, Matthew 17:5 "While he yet spake, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them: and behold a voice out of the cloud, which said, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him." this we have addressed before. now are there any other question you like to ask?. PICJAG.

I believe that we addressed your question, but if I have not, please re-post your question so that I can address it PICJAG.

what's wrong if I speak in the plural? it's the question or answers that count, .... right. PICJAG.

That's right Jesus is the ONLY person in the Godhead. I never said you did either. my point was, is not the person in John 1:3 the same one person in Isaiah 44:24? don't you talk to yourself? but God, being in a diversified state G243 Allos, or in a numerical difference, yes he can, just as HIS.. HIS .... Spirit, the Holy Spirit pray for us. supportive scripture, Romans 8:26 "Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered." ok, prove to me in scripture that says it's the ... as many say is the Father voice. but we can can prove other wise, example. Genesis 22:11 "And the angel of the LORD called unto him out of heaven, and said, Abraham, Abraham: and he said, Here am I." Genesis 22:12 "And he said, Lay not thine hand upon the lad, neither do thou any thing unto him: for now I know that thou fearest God, seeing thou hast not withheld thy son, thine only son from me." ok, who was speaking out of heaven on God's behalf? .... see your error now, just because a voice comes from heaven, unless it states who is speaking don't speculate, or assume. now that verse of scripture that says it's the Father voice, no assumption please. PICJAG.

we like your daniel take, but only one problem. there is only one who have eternal LIFE. supportive scripture, 1 Timothy 6:15 "Which in his times he shall shew, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords;" 1 Timothy 6:16 "Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen." ONLY "JESUS" Yeshua have eternal LIFE. for only means ..... only. and if he's the ONLY one who have it, where do that leave the ones called the Father and the Spirit? just think anout this for a second. if ONLY one of the Person have eternal life where do that leave the other persons? now, on the other hand, if there are three separate person, then there are three separate persons with eternal life, which means that there are three eternal lifes, and the bible is clear that only ONE have it. so how do all three have eternal life?. I'm only asking. PICJAG.

GINOLJC, I read your blog, this was interesting, "the Lord Jesus is God Almighty in human flesh", ok we agree. but my question is this, if he's the almighty in flesh, how then is he a separate person from his ownself? because the scriptures clearly states, Isaiah 44:8 "Fear ye not, neither be afraid: have not I told thee from that time, and have declared it? ye are even my witnesses. Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any." me is a single person "desigination". so how can there be anyone else?. for God ... (me) ... said he know not anyone else. PICJAG.

No, you are addressing only one person 101G. ERROR, John 1:1c states the WORD is GOD, so there is no one else, read John 1:1c again Yes it do just as Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he." see, the LORD, all cap, the Father, the root, the Spirit who is the "First" is also the Lord, the son, the OFFSPRING, the LAST, is the same person. did you notice the "WITH" there in Isaiah 41:4. it's the same person "diversified". now this to make it plain as day, Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last." NOTICE in Isaiah 41:4 the "FIRST" is WITH the "LAST. but in Isaiah 48:12 the "FIRST" is ALSO the "LAST". see it now? the First, the Father is the Last, the Son. to answer this is to know and understand the Greek term G243 allos. according to Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words G243 allos, its definition. Allos expresses a numerical difference and denotes another of the same sort. a numerical difference is one, two, but the same one person, or as the definition states, THE SAME SORT. and this numerical difference is achieved by GOD in the act called "SHARING" of oneself in flesh. and this is supported and backup by scripture, Philippians 2:6. Correct, for Isaiah 44:24 states that he was alone. now if Jesus is alone as the scriptures states, then there is no 2nd or 3rd person to be "WITH" him. BINGO. as said "there is no need to break it down any further". so to the topic, Jesus the Spirit, that's the Holy Spirit, raised his own body up in the resurrection as he said, who cannot lie did, John 2:18 "Then answered the Jews and said unto him, What sign shewest thou unto us, seeing that thou doest these things?" John 2:19 "Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up." John 2:20 "Then said the Jews, Forty and six years was this temple in building, and wilt thou rear it up in three days?" John 2:21 "But he spake of the temple of his body." PICJAG.

since you couldn't follow the scriptures we gave, as to who the Lord God is, that's ok. now you ask concering John 1:1-5, that GREAT also. in John 1:1-5 is the same "one" Person, "the Lord JESUS", GOD, who as verse 3 states, "MADE ALL THINGS". it is the same "ONE" person that "MADE ALL THINGS" in Isaiah 44:24, and he was "ALONE" and "BY HIMSELF" when he JESUS MADE ALL THINGS. listen, Isaiah 44:24 "Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;". so we ask, can you follow this? there is only ONE "MAKER" who was alone, and by himself, and that was JESUS, the Spirit. YES, in John 14, there are no, and we say again, there is no multiple personalities, and there are not three Entities, separate, either. since you went to John 14, ok. since you said that the Father and son, JESUS are one, Good, but as you said is separate. well then who sent the the "COMFORTER", the Holy Ghost? well let's see. since we're in John 14, John 14:26 "But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you." STOP, our Lord Jesus who cannot lie said that the Father will send the Holy Spirit, right, well read the verse again. now this, John 15:26 "But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me:" ok, who sent the comforter? we suggest you read John 14:26, and John 15:26 again carefully as to who sent the comforter. and while you're at it read this, John 14:16 "And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;" John 14:17 "Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you." John 14:18 "I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you." ok OneLight, in reading John 14:26, and John 15:26 and these three scriptures above.... WHO CAME? THEN you asked, "Care to explain what you mean by Diversified Oneness? I'd like to hear this in your own words, not in a YouTube video or a copy and paste from another site as I can easily do this myself". first, thank for asking. not only was thatcourteous,and i thank you for that, but smart also on your part to ask. Proverbs 18:13 "He that answereth a matter before he heareth it, it is folly and shame unto him." now what is "Diversified Oneness". I will make this as short as possiable. "the sharing of God himself in flesh". not a separate person, nor a copy of himself, but the "OFFSPRING" of his ownself manifested in flesh. note where is this "diversity" in the bible. it's another word for ..... "OFFSPRING" supportive scripture, Revelation 22:16 "I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star." according to Mickelson's Enhanced Strong's Dictionaries of the Greek and Hebrew Testaments, the term "OFFSPRING" is the Greek word, G1085 γένος genos (ǰe'-nos) n. kin. {abstract or concrete, literal or figurative, individual or collective} [from G1096] KJV: born, country(-man), diversity, generation, kind(-red), nation, offspring, stock Root(s): G1096 Offspring can be translate as "Diversity" which is where the titles the Last, the End, the Omega originates from. for the Lord Jesus is the "ROOT" for the Offspring that MANIFESTED himself in flesh, hence the titles the First, the beginning, the Alpha. this is the ONE and the Same person "shared" or "diversified" in flesh ... of his ownself, for God is a Spirit. the Greek term that express this sharing is G243 "allos", or in our English language "ANOTHER" of one OWNSELF. do this mean two persons? NO, but two numerically of the same one. hence the scripture that support this plurality of Gos as ONE is Philippians 2:6, but there are so many more scriptures that support this oneness as a diversified God in flesh. and since you was kind to ask, we suggest you in kindness re-read what we have posted here, and if you have any questions please fell free to ask. and again thanks for your kindness. PICJAG.

I hear what you are saying, but it's not adding up, read my last post on Isaiah 48:16. and there are many verse that prove this oneness, as you say of God, but as only one PERSON. PICJAG.

TITLES are not persons, glad we agree there. neither is the Lord God a separate person from the Spirit. lets see this clearly. Isa 48:16 “Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent me”. the me here is the am I who is sent. but many have said, "the one who is sent is the son, (the Lord Jesus,), who is a separate person from the, (Lord God, the Father? and his Spirit), here in Isaiah, this is what many say. well NO, again we say NO. for the Lord God here in Isaiah 48:16 is the Lord Jesus, whom we say is the son. if we're correct, and we say that the Lord God here is Jesus, the Son, then who was sent? well by process of elimination that would leave the one who was sent, by many thinking, the Father was sent. well if that correct, and some may disagree, we have the bible to back this up. in Revelation 1:1 someone sent his angel to John, correct. and in Revelation 22:6 the angel who was sent was talking to John and said this. Revelation 22:6 "And he said unto me, These sayings are faithful and true: and the Lord God of the holy prophets sent his angel to shew unto his servants the things which must shortly be done." the "Lord God" of the ..... holy prophets?, yes the same Lord God and his Spirit that sent the am I. rememver there is only "ONE Lord". well who is this "Lord God" of the Holy Prophets? well the bible answer itself, while we're in Revelation chapter 22, just drop down to verse 16. there you will have your answer as to whom the Lord God is. it answers who sent his angel. Rev 22:16 I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star. well, JESUS is the Lord God of the holy Prophets. now going back to Isaiah, the question remains "is the Lord God the Father of the Son". and the bible clearly states that the Lord God is the Son, JESUS, per Rev 22:16. now you have a problem in persons. lastely, I'm just what the bible say to be, as the Lord Jesus is, and all the apostles, and believers ... "Diversified Oneness". PICJAG.

if this is true, then who was sent according to Isa 48:16 Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent me. is the "Lord God" the Father, and the Spirit is the Holy Spirit who sent the Son? yes or no. PICJAG.

THAT'S THREE "GODS". PICJAG.

GINOLJC, to all. he, himself, who is the Spirit, raised his ownself up. supportive scripture, John 2:18 Then answered the Jews and said unto him, What sign shewest thou unto us, seeing that thou doest these things? John 2:19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up. John 2:20 Then said the Jews, Forty and six years was this temple in building, and wilt thou rear it up in three days? John 2:21 But he spake of the temple of his body. the Lord Jesus raised up his own body. PICJAG.

GINOLJC, to all. not saying anyone is right or wrong, but consider this. neither the man made up names Jehovah nor Yahweh is God personal name. lets see how they derived at those names from the tetragrammaton. The word "JEHOVAH" was formed by merging the three vowels (e, o, and a) into the Romanized (Latinized) four letter version JHVH to get, JeHoVaH. and the word "YAHWEH" was formed by merging the vowels (a, and e), into the four letter version to get, YaHWeH. so we have the English man made, and the Hebrew man made form of God's supposed unpronounced name. but the KJV exposes this nonesense, right in the scriptures. one poster posed the scripture, listen. Exodus 6:3 "And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them." ok, if the name "Jehovah" was not known to abraham, question, why was it in Abraham mouth? supportive scripture, Genesis 22:14 "And Abraham called the name of that place Jehovahjireh: as it is said to this day, In the mount of the LORD it shall be seen." ok, someone is not correct. God is true, and abraham is the friend of God, and God hate liers. so that eliminate God, and abraham. which leave the translators. and I believe their mistake is this, as what was afore mention. "I AM" or "I AM THAT I AM" or H1961 הָיָה hayah (haw-yaw) v. is a verb. and verbs are not NOUNS. that was the tranalators first mistake. a verb describ what someone is in ACTION. I am the KING, I am the LORD, ect... that describes "WHAT" he is in Name. that's the difference between "What" someone is name VS "Who" someone is in name. example, if I was to ask, "What" is the first woman name, many would say Eve, and they would be in ERROR. why? because I asked "WHAT" is the first woman name. her name is "Adam" because that's "WHAT" she is in NAME, supportive scripture. Genesis 5:1 "This is the book of the generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made he him;"Genesis 5:2 "Male and female created he them; and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created." Adam is what she is in NAME. now if I would have asked, "WHO" was the first woman in name, then the correct answer would have been "Eve". because "Eve" is "WHO" she vs Adam as to "WHAT" she is in name. see the difference now. so if we go back to Exodus 3:13, Moses asked God "WHAT" is his name, not "WHO" is he in name. for if he, Moses, would have asked "Who" is you in name, Game over pack our bags and we could go home. for the answer would have been "YESHUA", or in English "JESUS". why do we say this? because in Isaiah 52:6 God said, "Therefore my people shall know my name: therefore they shall know in that day that I am he that doth speak: behold, it is I." two thing to notice. A. shall is a future tense, so in the future from Isaiah his people will know his personal name. which bring us to B. "HIS" personal name. God said, his people will know ... "MY" name. here my is personal. so when in the future was God personal name was made known? he said,"in that day that I am he that doth speak: behold, it is I." ok, do we have scripture to this? yes, John 8:24 "I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins." there it is, plain as day, "I am he", so do you believe?, if not, then you're still in your sins. PICJAG.

GINOLJC, to all. This is one "REMEMBRANCE" I Love. Acts 10:1 "There was a certain man in Caesarea called Cornelius, a centurion of the band called the Italian band," 2 "A devout man, and one that feared God with all his house, which gave much alms to the people, and prayed to God alway." 3 "He saw in a vision evidently about the ninth hour of the day an angel of God coming in to him, and saying unto him, Cornelius." 4 "And when he looked on him, he was afraid, and said, What is it, Lord? And he said unto him, Thy prayers and thine alms are come up for a memorial before God." Captian Cornelius, a gentile was Loved by God, and was written in the book of life. supportive scripture, Malachi 3:16 "Then they that feared the LORD spake often one to another: and the LORD hearkened, and heard it, and a book of remembrance was written before him for them that feared the LORD, and that thought upon his name." 17 "And they shall be mine, saith the LORD of hosts, in that day when I make up my jewels; and I will spare them, as a man spareth his own son that serveth him." 18 "Then shall ye return, and discern between the righteous and the wicked, between him that serveth God and him that serveth him not." the Hebrew word remembrance here in Malachi 3:16 is H2146 זִכרוֹן zikrown (zik-rone') n-m. a memento (or memorable thing, day or writing). [from H2142] KJV: memorial, record. Root(s): H2142 Captian Cornelius, a gentile was "REMEMBERED" of God by writting his name in the book. for he/God said, 7 "And they shall be mine, saith the LORD of hosts, in that day when I make up my jewels; and I will spare them, as a man spareth his own son that serveth him." so Cornelius, a gentile was a son of God, because his "fear of the LORD prayers and thine alms are come up for a memorial before God." and being a son of God, as his household also feared God, the household was saved also. what a Great God we serve. PICJAG.

GINOLJC to all. First thanks for the question, second, not having read all the post here, but all sexual sins is aganist God, are they not?. but consider this. is not adultery, and Fornication a form of Homosexuality? let me explain my position, scriptural evidence, Genesis 2:24 "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." now, knowing this, let give an example. 2 couples, couple #1. Mr. and Mrs. Doe. couple #2. Mr. and Mrs. Jones. say for instance Mr. Doe Lay with, or have sexual relations with Mrs. Jones. guess who else Mr. Doe is having sexual relations with? that's right Mr. Jones. when Mr. Doe lay Mrs. Jones, he also is laying with Mr. Jones. for Mr. and Mrs Jones are "ONE FLESH", because they are married. also remember that sin is spiritual, and then made manifested by the act. so the sexual sin took place before the act. the sin is spiritual which is aganist God, who is Spirit. for if a man look in "lust" after a woman he has already committed the sin. supportive scripture, Matthew 5:28 "But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart." so before the two even get to the bed, the sin is already committed. so when Mr. Doe have Mrs. Jones, he is having Mr. Jones and don't even know it. how ignorant are we of God's Holy Laws. Just as Fornication. if a virgin, who is bound to his or her parents, as one flesh, and is not married, and goes and have ........... prematerial sex, then the person who have sex with the virgin is having sex with the virgin father and mother, which is spiritual in nature, and acted out in the manifestation of the sin. for the virgin is without permission of the marriage license which give the authority to pratice sex with the one of his or her choosing in the agreement. Maybe one might want to reconsider their position on why people or Christians are forced to accept or put up with adultery, and Fornication which is a form of Homosexuality? PICJAG.

GINOLJC, to all. Addressing the OP. not saying any are right or wrong concering the bad wife, butconsider this. 1 Corinthians 7:10 "And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband:" 1 Corinthians 7:11 "But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife." 1 Corinthians 7:12 "But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away." 1 Corinthians 7:13 "And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him." 1 Corinthians 7:14 "For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy." (one need to read this again) 1 Corinthians 7:15 "But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace." 1 Corinthians 7:16 "For what knowest thou, O wife, whether thou shalt save thy husband? or how knowest thou, O man, whether thou shalt save thy wife?". (this should be read over and over) Now, knowing this let's look at this theological question of "bad wife", and it's solution. so let's look at the solution ......... REPENTANCE, OT scripture, Isaiah 55:7 "Let the wicked forsake his way, and the unrighteous man his thoughts: and let him return unto the LORD, and he will have mercy upon him; and to our God, for he will abundantly pardon." here as in 1 Corinthians 7:15 if one "repent" there is salvation for a good or "bad" wife. as the prophet and king David said, let thy "Goodness" and thy "GRACE" follow me. Psalms 23:6 "Surely goodness and mercy shall follow me all the days of my life: and I will dwell in the house of the LORD for ever." and the first thing out of John the Baptist, and the Lord Jesus is REPENT, for the Kingdom of Heaven is at hand. LOVE OVERCOMES ALL. but as 1 Corinthians 7:15 states, "if she depart, let here depart, A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace." PICJAG.

GINOLJC, to all. First thanks for your reply. second, you quoted, ok, I see your point, but consider this, titles are not "PERSONS", but a person can hold several titles. lets examine verse 1. "God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets". ok. lets see who was it that spoke to the prophets. 1Pet 1:10 "Of which salvation the prophets have enquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you: 1Pet 1:11 "Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow". ok DignifiedResponse, who was it in the prophets of old testifying of the grace to come? that's right our Lord and God Jesus the Christ, without flesh, without bome, and without blood, spoke or inspired the prophets. notice in all the OT prophets they all said something like this,"The WORD of the LORD came unto me". example, Ezek 1:3 The word of the LORD came expressly unto Ezekiel the priest, the son of Buzi, in the land of the Chaldeans by the river Chebar; and the hand of the LORD was there upon him". or this, Zech 1:1 "In the eighth month, in the second year of Darius, came the word of the LORD unto Zechariah, the son of Berechiah, the son of Iddo the prophet, saying". this is the same thing with all the prophets. see, it was the Spirit of Christ, God himself, the Holy Spirit whospoke to the prophets of old. and the "WORD" that came to them is God, (John 1:1c "and the WORD was GOD). see it's the same person, only he was not manifested in flesh in the OT. now verse 2. "Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds" again DignifiedResponse, who was it that made the world? let the BIBLE speak. Isa 44:24 "Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself". NOW THIS, John 1:3 "All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made". again DignifiedResponse, we ask, "who made all things?". look again at both verses. and remember, in Isaiah 44:24 the one there who made all things said he was "ALONE", and "BY HIMSELF". so there was one else who he went through or by someone else. are you seeing it now? he was alone. Now verse 3. "Heb 1:3 Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high". ok, "HIS" image? "HIS" Glory? "HIS" Person? ok if there is a trinity lets see what the bible say. #1. His Image, scripture, Gen 1:26 "And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth". SOUND LIKE MORE THAN ONE PERSON, RIGHT, well lets see, the very next verse, Gen 1:27 "So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them". STOP, how did the "US", and the "OUR" in verse 26 go to being "his", and "he" in verse 27? other words how is God a US, Plural, yet a "HE", Single. well the Lord Jesus cannot lie right... lets hear from him on who and how many it is in the beginning, that's fare enough right to hear from the Lord himself. Matt 19:4 "And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female". well the Lord Jesus cannot lie. he said God in the beginning is a "HE" that's a single person. God, (he), made them male and female. so the Lord Jesus cannot lie, so he tells the truth. in which case I must accept his words as truth. so if he's the true, which he is, then why is the bible saying,"US" and "OUR" in the beginning? Good question, and the answer is right in the bible. Rom 5:14 "Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come". God was speaking of himself as the IMAGE to come, the true man. so who came? GOD himself. but how?, scripture, Phil 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God". EQUAL "with" GOD?, yes, not Equal "TO" GOD, as in a separate person, but EQUAL "with" GOD in that which to come in flesh, his IMAGE. what do we mean? God is a "Diversity" or the EQUAL "SHARE" of himself in FLESH. the term "Form" in the Greek is G3444 μορφή morphe (mor-fee') n. which means, 1. form. 2. (intrinsically) fundamental nature. and God is a Spirit, (john 4:24), hence (the Spirit of Christ as stated in 1 Peter 1:10 & 11). but the root of "FORM" in Phil 2:6 is G3313 μέρος meros (me'-ros) n. which identifies who God is as a plurality of himself in flesh as the son, meaning the ("US", and the "OUR", of Genesis 1:26), that was to come, per Romans 5:14b. G3313 μέρος meros means, 1. a portion (i.e. an amount allotted, a part of something) another word for portion is "SHARE". THERE IS THE REVELATION. God is the "EQUAL SHARE" of himself in flesh, THAT'S THE PLURALITY OF GOD, AND THE EQUALITY OF GOD HIMSELF "SHARED" IN FLESH. can we back this up with scripture? yes, Isa 63:5 "And I looked, and there was none to help; and I wondered that there was none to uphold: therefore mine own arm brought salvation unto me; and my fury, it upheld me". God's OWN, OWN,OWN ARM? yes, the Christ, who is Jesus, the Spirit of God ..... the Holy Spirit, God himself "SHARED" in flesh, the (US and the OUR to come, the HE of Genesis 1:27, who made man male and female as our Lord said). it was God himself who came in flesh and saved us, as the equal "share" of himself in flesh. supportive scripture, Isa 35:4 "Say to them that are of a fearful heart, Be strong, fear not: behold, your God will come with vengeance, even God with a recompence; he will come and save you". and what did John 1:1c say? "and the Word was GOD". just as Thomas declared, John 20:28 "And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God". THAT'S JESUS, the one and the same person. and as Peter said, "The Spirit of Christ", that was in the prophets of old. so let us put in a nutshell for you. God is a "Diversity",or the equal "Share", or a plurality of himself in flesh. this definition can be proved out in the Greek word, "G243 Allos",our English word "Another". listen to the definition, Allos expresses a numerical difference and denotes another of the same sort. see it? a NUMERICAL DIFFERENCE ... two, but the SAME ONE. not two separate person, but one person, the EQUAL SHARE of himself. these definitions can be summed up in one word, "Offspring". scripture, Rev 22:16 "I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star". here, "Offspring" is the Greek word, G1085 γένος genos (ǰe'-nos) n. which means kin. {abstract or concrete, literal or figurative, individual or collective} [from G1096] KJV: born, country(-man), diversity, generation, kind(-red), nation, offspring, stock Root(s): G1096 see how the kjv can translate offspring ........ diversity he's a diversity, or the equal share of himself in flesh. which is why, and how God is a plurality of himself in flesh, hence his IMAGE, "MAN", the US and the WE which was to come, the "him" or the "he" in the beginning, that was shared in flesh at the end). also notice in the definition above, offspring means "kin" liske in "KINsman Redeemer". because he came in flesh that was born of a woman, (hence the root of the is definition, G1096 γίνομαι ginomai (ǰiy'-no-mai) v. 1. to cause to be (“gen”-erate) born. see how the bible just come together. now this is just the first few verse you gave. and we'll get to the rest, but I would like you to go over what was posted and if you have any question please ask before we move on to your next set of scriptures. I'm looking forward to an Intresting conversation. PICJAG.

thanks for the reply. this is just a greeting acronym I use, Greeting In the Name Of the Lord Jesus Christ no T no more cross.

GINOLJC, to all First, thanks for the topic, second, Jesus is the Holy Spirit, and he, the Lord Jesus, holds both titles "Father" without flesh and bone, and "Son" with flesh and bones. PICJAG.