This is something I've pondered and researched, but haven't found answers to ...
Why is there a difference in scripture between the use of the plural "ears" vs. the singular "ear"?
"He who has ears, let him hear" as seen in:
Matthew 11:15, Matthew 13:9, Matthew 13:43, Mark 4:9, Luke 8:8, Luke 14:35
And
"He who has an ear, let him hear" as seen in:
Rev 2:7, Rev 2:11, Rev 2:17, Rev 2:29, Rev 3:6, Rev 3:13, Rev 3:22
I welcome answers