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Posted
Tradition originates from men.

Like the tradition of which Books belong in the Bible?

2 Thessalonians 2:14 Therefore, brethren, stand fast; and hold the traditions which you have learned, whether by word, or by our epistle.

I believe Paul was speaking about the Feast days and the traditions passed down through the jews.

Since "tradition" is so important to you, then how many of those are you observing?

Or...do you only choose "traditions" to your liking?

It rhetorical, of course...I know the answer

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Posted
Tradition originates from men.

Like the tradition of which Books belong in the Bible?

2 Thessalonians 2:14 Therefore, brethren, stand fast; and hold the traditions which you have learned, whether by word, or by our epistle.

I believe Paul was speaking about the Feast days and the traditions passed down through the jews.

Can you back that up with Scripture, or is it just one tradition that you favor over another?

Posted
Tradition originates from men.

Like the tradition of which Books belong in the Bible?

2 Thessalonians 2:14 Therefore, brethren, stand fast; and hold the traditions which you have learned, whether by word, or by our epistle.

I believe Paul was speaking about the Feast days and the traditions passed down through the jews.

Can you back that up with Scripture, or is it just one tradition that you favor over another?

Can you prove it was anything else?

It is much more likely that I'm right than anything the RCC has ever told you.


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Posted

So, it is possible, in your theology, that the human nature of Jesus could at some point have been under the dominion of the devil?

No, it is not possible.

Then, how did Jesus take His human nature from the sinful Mary whilst never having that same human nature under the dominion of the devil?

As I said . . .

That is a good point. At the same time, did not His divinity demand a body that at no time was under the dominion of the devil?

If He was in a divine body, He wouldn't be fully human, would He?

~~

All that matters is that Jesus was the perfect Lamb of God. In the OT, when an animal was inspected for sacrifice, only the animal was inspected. The mother of the animal was never inspected for perfection. There is not saying a perfect lamb had to come from an unblemished mother. All that mattered was that the lamb itself was unblemished.

And really, if Jesus required a sinless mother in order for Himself to be sinless - that really cheapens who He is And it makes the temptation in the wilderness rather pointless.


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Posted

No these were not Jewish traditions. These were passed down by the apostles- they came out of Judaism but they are distinct sacraments.

Posted

RCC "tradition" also says that Mary's house was flown by angels to Loreto, Italy.

They tell so many far-fetched fables, I don't know how anyone could take them seriously on any matter related to Miriam or Yeshua or the scriptures.


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Posted

So, it is possible, in your theology, that the human nature of Jesus could at some point have been under the dominion of the devil?

No, it is not possible.

Then, how did Jesus take His human nature from the sinful Mary whilst never having that same human nature under the dominion of the devil?

As I said . . .

That is a good point. At the same time, did not His divinity demand a body that at no time was under the dominion of the devil?

If He was in a divine body, He wouldn't be fully human, would He?

His divine Nature existed together with His human nature. His human nature was not divine. It was human.

But, how is it possible for the divine Nature of Jesus to be one in being with the human nature of Jesus when the human nature of Jesus was under the dominion of the devil?

Jesus has two Natures, but He is one Being, one Person. How is it possible for one of the Natures of that one divine Person to be under the dominion of the devil?

Posted
But, how is it possible for the divine Nature of Jesus to be one in being with the human nature of Jesus when the human nature of Jesus was under the dominion of the devil?

who told you He was under the devil?

No one is under the dominion of the devil until they sin


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Posted
Jesus has two Natures, but He is one Being, one Person. How is it possible for one of the Natures of that one divine Person to be under the dominion of the devil?

Romans 8

3 For what the law could not do in that it was weak through the flesh, God did by sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, on account of sin: He condemned sin in the flesh, 4 that the righteous requirement of the law might be fulfilled in us who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.

Hebrews 5

1 For every high priest taken from among men is appointed for men in things pertaining to God, that he may offer both gifts and sacrifices for sins. 2 He can have compassion on those who are ignorant and going astray, since he himself is also subject to weakness. 3 Because of this he is required as for the people, so also for himself, to offer sacrifices for sins. 4 And no man takes this honor to himself, but he who is called by God, just as Aaron was. 5 So also Christ did not glorify Himself to become High Priest, but it was He who said to Him: "You are My Son, Today I have begotten You." 6 As He also says in another place: "You are a priest forever According to the order of Melchizedek"; 7 who, in the days of His flesh, when He had offered up prayers and supplications, with vehement cries and tears to Him who was able to save Him from death, and was heard because of His godly fear, 8 though He was a Son, yet He learned obedience by the things which He suffered. 9 And having been perfected, He became the author of eternal salvation to all who obey Him, 10 called by God as High Priest "according to the order of Melchizedek,"

~~

How could temptation had been "temptation" to Jesus is what you are saying is true?

How could these Scriptures have the depth of meaning they have if what you are saying is true?


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Posted

Anyway, I would still like to hear your response to this, leoxii -

Mary is the Daughter of the Father, the Spouse of the Holy Spirit, and the Mother of the Son.

Please explain:

1) Jesus is the Son of the Father and the son of Mary, yet Mary is the wife of the Holy Spirit?

How can Mary be married to the Holy Spirit to give birth the Jesus yet Jesus is not the son of the Holy Spirit?

Don't you see the illogicalness of this?

2) Did Mary become the wife of the Holy Spirit before or after she became the wife of Joseph? Was she married to both at the same time? Or what?

3) What Scripture do you base this on?

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