LookingForAnswers Posted March 21, 2014 Group: Seeker Followers: 0 Topic Count: 10 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 1,033 Content Per Day: 0.27 Reputation: 67 Days Won: 2 Joined: 12/26/2013 Status: Offline Share Posted March 21, 2014 This is from the AKJV Acts12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. The word that was translated to "Easter" is the word "pascha" According to Strongs: pascha: the Passover, the Passover supper or lamb Original Word: πάσχα, τόPart of Speech: Aramaic Transliterated Word (Indeclinable)Transliteration: paschaPhonetic Spelling: (pas'-khah)Short Definition: the feast of Passover, the Passover lambDefinition: the feast of Passover, the Passover lamb. the word pascha was used 29 times in the NT and 28 times it was translated it as passover, yet this one time it was Easter. Why is this? Why the word Easter which clearly was not being celebrated in the 1st Century Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
anthonyjmcgirr Posted March 21, 2014 Group: Advanced Member Followers: 1 Topic Count: 14 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 194 Content Per Day: 0.05 Reputation: 37 Days Won: 0 Joined: 01/31/2014 Status: Offline Birthday: 02/27/1984 Share Posted March 21, 2014 Easter existed before as a pagan holiday, essentially the goddess Ishtar (Easter) of fertility. The pagan Easter, Jewish Passover and Christian resurrection Sunday all fit around the same time, so I reckon they were combined. Much like how Christmas falls near the start of winter, even though we know Christ wasn't born on December 25th. It's one of those weird Catholic traditions that was started to combine pagan holidays with Christian events. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kwikphilly Posted March 21, 2014 Group: Worthy Ministers Followers: 96 Topic Count: 307 Topics Per Day: 0.08 Content Count: 18,138 Content Per Day: 4.62 Reputation: 27,819 Days Won: 327 Joined: 08/03/2013 Status: Offline Share Posted March 21, 2014 Blessings Looking I have read alot about this with many claiming that the 50 or some odd translaters incorrectly translated this word in 1611but here is the best explanation I can find as to "why" it is translated a Easter,I thin it is written by D.Swindle? With love-in Christ,Kwik “Easter” Is Translated Correctly In The King James Bible The word “Easter” has been incorrectly translated “Passover” in all modern Bible versions. Only the trustworthy authorized King James Bible renders the proper word, “EASTER.” How do I know this? The Bible evidences it. Notice again in the passage of Acts 12:1-4 that King Herod killed James. When he saw that it pleased the Jews, Herod also had Peter arrested. Notice that Herod took Peter DURING the DAYS OF UNLEAVENED BREAD and was going to bring him forth to the people AFTER Easter. The Old Testament teaches that the DAY OF PASSOVER started the FEAST OF UNLEAVENED BREAD. Notice in the following Scripture that the Day Of Passover occurred on the 14th day of the first month, but the Feast Of Unleavened Bread began on the 15th day of the month... “In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD's passover. And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.” (Leviticus 23:5,6) So we learn from this Old Testament Scripture that the day of Passover fell on the 14th day of the first month, and then the “FEAST of UNLEAVENED BREAD” began upon the 15th day of the first month. The days of unleavened bread came AFTER Passover! Acts 12:3 tells us that Peter was apprehended DURING the “days of unleavened bread.” This means that the day of Passover had ALREADY occurred. “Easter” could not have been Passover, because Passover occurs BEFORE the days of unleavened bread. Passover had come and gone. Herod decided to bring Peter forth AFTER Easter. This is the proper time sequence: 1. PASSOVER 2. DAYS OF UNLEAVENED BREAD 3. EASTER So there you have it... the Day Of Passover always kicks off the seven Days Of Unleavened Bread, happening the day before the feast begins. So if Herod arrested James during the Feast Of Unleavened Bread, the Passover was already over. Easter is correct. Of course, Easter is a pagan holiday and the Bible doesn't deny that. The Bible is simply teaching that James was taken by Herod during the days of unleavened bread, and Herod was planning to kill Peter after Easter. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
LookingForAnswers Posted March 21, 2014 Group: Seeker Followers: 0 Topic Count: 10 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 1,033 Content Per Day: 0.27 Reputation: 67 Days Won: 2 Joined: 12/26/2013 Status: Offline Author Share Posted March 21, 2014 Thank Kwik, Do we have any historical data to show that the people living in Jerusalem celebrating a holiday called Easter? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ayin jade Posted March 21, 2014 Group: Worthy Ministers Followers: 44 Topic Count: 6,178 Topics Per Day: 0.88 Content Count: 43,795 Content Per Day: 6.21 Reputation: 11,243 Days Won: 58 Joined: 01/03/2005 Status: Offline Share Posted March 21, 2014 That is an example of thought by thought translation, rather than literal translation. The translators used easter because that is what the audience reading that bible celebrated. It is a pet peeve of mine that for those who elevate the kjv to only bible status ignore things like easter, unicorn, corn in the translation. However, using the word easter doesnt really change the overall message of the bible. Its a minor issue. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
LookingForAnswers Posted March 21, 2014 Group: Seeker Followers: 0 Topic Count: 10 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 1,033 Content Per Day: 0.27 Reputation: 67 Days Won: 2 Joined: 12/26/2013 Status: Offline Author Share Posted March 21, 2014 That is an example of thought by thought translation, rather than literal translation. The translators used easter because that is what the audience reading that bible celebrated. It is a pet peeve of mine that for those who elevate the kjv to only bible status ignore things like easter, unicorn, corn in the translation. However, using the word easter doesnt really change the overall message of the bible. Its a minor issue. I could not agree more, fine post! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
anthonyjmcgirr Posted March 21, 2014 Group: Advanced Member Followers: 1 Topic Count: 14 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 194 Content Per Day: 0.05 Reputation: 37 Days Won: 0 Joined: 01/31/2014 Status: Offline Birthday: 02/27/1984 Share Posted March 21, 2014 I guess you didn't like my explanation. But it's accurate: The first century church did not rename the Passover to Easter. The word is a derivative of Ishtar or Astarte. It is the name of a pagan goddess of fertility celebrated during the Spring solstice. The introduction of Sunday as a day to commemorate the death of Christ first began after Roman Emperor Hadrian crushed a Jewish rebellion (132-135 A.D.). After his victory he rebuilt the city ruins and expelled all Jews and Christians. He undertook a policy of banning the practice of any religious ceremony or event that resembled what the Jews practiced (e.g. Saturday Sabbath, etc.). http://www.biblestudy.org/question/what-does-the-word-easter-mean.html Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest shiloh357 Posted March 21, 2014 Share Posted March 21, 2014 Every translation has its weaknesses. The KJV is no different. There is no way you can get "Easter" out of pascha. That word simply wasn't translated by scholars who translated the text of the KJV. Same goes for the word "church" it is not a tranlsation of the word "ekklesia." Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
LookingForAnswers Posted March 22, 2014 Group: Seeker Followers: 0 Topic Count: 10 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 1,033 Content Per Day: 0.27 Reputation: 67 Days Won: 2 Joined: 12/26/2013 Status: Offline Author Share Posted March 22, 2014 I guess you didn't like my explanation. But it's accurate: The first century church did not rename the Passover to Easter. The word is a derivative of Ishtar or Astarte. It is the name of a pagan goddess of fertility celebrated during the Spring solstice. The introduction of Sunday as a day to commemorate the death of Christ first began after Roman Emperor Hadrian crushed a Jewish rebellion (132-135 A.D.). After his victory he rebuilt the city ruins and expelled all Jews and Christians. He undertook a policy of banning the practice of any religious ceremony or event that resembled what the Jews practiced (e.g. Saturday Sabbath, etc.). http://www.biblestudy.org/question/what-does-the-word-easter-mean.html It was a very nice history lesson, but it did not address the question unless you can show that the people of Jerusalem were celebrating a pagan goddess of fertility around 35 AD or so. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
alien224 Posted March 22, 2014 Group: Diamond Member Followers: 8 Topic Count: 82 Topics Per Day: 0.02 Content Count: 1,762 Content Per Day: 0.38 Reputation: 869 Days Won: 2 Joined: 08/09/2011 Status: Offline Birthday: 02/24/1964 Share Posted March 22, 2014 I am not a kjv person. I prefer to call the holiday Resurrection day as that is what I celebrate. Quick has a great answer but I tend to agree with Ayin. And yes all translations have their weaknesses.I think many people tend to think the 1611 authorized King James Version was actually aurthorized By Jesus.while it was ispired by God it was translated as a political favor to gain popularity of King James.Thus it was authorized by King James for use in the Church of England. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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