King James Version question

[Guest Butero]

This is from the AKJV

Acts12:⁴ And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

 

The word that was translated to "Easter" is the word "pascha"

 

According to Strongs:

 

pascha: the Passover, the Passover supper or lamb

Original Word: πάσχα, τό

Part of Speech: Aramaic Transliterated Word (Indeclinable)

Transliteration: pascha

Phonetic Spelling: (pas'-khah)

Short Definition: the feast of Passover, the Passover lamb

Definition: the feast of Passover, the Passover lamb.

 

 

 the word pascha was used 29 times in the NT and 28 times it was translated it as passover, yet this one time it was Easter.

 

Why is this?  Why the word Easter which clearly was not being celebrated in the 1st Century

Easter was a pagan holiday at the time, and at least in my Greek Dictionary, Easter is a legitimate English word that can be used in that passage.  This is often used by critics of the KJV Bible, but it is not an error. 

[Guest Butero]

 

I guess you didn't like my explanation.  But it's accurate: 

 

 

The first century church did not rename the Passover to Easter. The word is a derivative of Ishtar or Astarte. It is the name of a pagan goddess of fertility celebrated during the Spring solstice.

The introduction of Sunday as a day to commemorate the death of Christ first began after Roman Emperor Hadrian crushed a Jewish rebellion (132-135 A.D.). After his victory he rebuilt the city ruins and expelled all Jews and Christians. He undertook a policy of banning the practice of any religious ceremony or event that resembled what the Jews practiced (e.g. Saturday Sabbath, etc.).

 

 

 

http://www.biblestudy.org/question/what-does-the-word-easter-mean.html

 

It was a very nice history lesson, but it did not address the question unless you can show that the people of Jerusalem were celebrating a pagan goddess of fertility around 35 AD or so.

 

The Christian church didn't have to be celebrating Easter for the word to be correct in showing a time period.  The people knew of Easter. 

[LookingForAnswers]

 

 

I guess you didn't like my explanation.  But it's accurate: 

 

 

The first century church did not rename the Passover to Easter. The word is a derivative of Ishtar or Astarte. It is the name of a pagan goddess of fertility celebrated during the Spring solstice.

The introduction of Sunday as a day to commemorate the death of Christ first began after Roman Emperor Hadrian crushed a Jewish rebellion (132-135 A.D.). After his victory he rebuilt the city ruins and expelled all Jews and Christians. He undertook a policy of banning the practice of any religious ceremony or event that resembled what the Jews practiced (e.g. Saturday Sabbath, etc.).

 

 

 

http://www.biblestudy.org/question/what-does-the-word-easter-mean.html

 

It was a very nice history lesson, but it did not address the question unless you can show that the people of Jerusalem were celebrating a pagan goddess of fertility around 35 AD or so.

 

The Christian church didn't have to be celebrating Easter for the word to be correct in showing a time period.  The people knew of Easter. 

 

 

was Herod celebrating Easter?  If not then he was not waiting for Easter to be over, thus it was not the right word.

[LookingForAnswers]

 

This is from the AKJV

Acts12:⁴ And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

 

The word that was translated to "Easter" is the word "pascha"

 

According to Strongs:

 

pascha: the Passover, the Passover supper or lamb

Original Word: πάσχα, τό

Part of Speech: Aramaic Transliterated Word (Indeclinable)

Transliteration: pascha

Phonetic Spelling: (pas'-khah)

Short Definition: the feast of Passover, the Passover lamb

Definition: the feast of Passover, the Passover lamb.

 

 

 the word pascha was used 29 times in the NT and 28 times it was translated it as passover, yet this one time it was Easter.

 

Why is this?  Why the word Easter which clearly was not being celebrated in the 1st Century

Easter was a pagan holiday at the time, and at least in my Greek Dictionary, Easter is a legitimate English word that can be used in that passage.  This is often used by critics of the KJV Bible, but it is not an error. 

 

 

The word "pascha" (the one the KJV translated to easter) is used 29 times in the NT and only once did the KJV people make it Easter.  Why is that? IF (and that is a huge IF) Easter is legitimate why is it only used once?

[kwikphilly]

Blessings Looking....

     As you have understood,I only posed an explanation given by Swindle as the reason the translators chose to use Easter that one time........as I see it,there is no other literal translation for the word pascha besides Passover & that is why I found that little article to be a reasonable explanation for them to "replace" the actual word with "Easter"..............plus I would imagine the church was also a major influence in 1611........And of course I agree with you & Jade,I do think it is a minor issue................All my Bibles say Passover except the KJV,I think you mentioned the same?

                                                                                                                                      With love-in Christ,Kwik

[The_Patriot21]

Easter existed before as a pagan holiday, essentially the goddess Ishtar (Easter) of fertility.  The pagan Easter, Jewish Passover and Christian resurrection Sunday all fit around the same time, so I reckon they were combined.  Much like how Christmas falls near the start of winter, even though we know Christ wasn't born on December 25th.  It's one of those weird Catholic traditions that was started to combine pagan holidays with Christian events. 

actually, christmas being combined wasnt a catholic thing, the early christians did it to avoid peresecution by the romans-if they celebrated Christs birth on the actual day the romans would put them to death, so they combined it with the pagan holiday so the romans thought that they were celebrating the pagan one. The catholics just picked up on this and the actual day forgotten over time. Not sure on the easter part but it was likely combined as well.

[Guest Butero]

 

 

 

I guess you didn't like my explanation.  But it's accurate: 

 

 

The first century church did not rename the Passover to Easter. The word is a derivative of Ishtar or Astarte. It is the name of a pagan goddess of fertility celebrated during the Spring solstice.

The introduction of Sunday as a day to commemorate the death of Christ first began after Roman Emperor Hadrian crushed a Jewish rebellion (132-135 A.D.). After his victory he rebuilt the city ruins and expelled all Jews and Christians. He undertook a policy of banning the practice of any religious ceremony or event that resembled what the Jews practiced (e.g. Saturday Sabbath, etc.).

 

 

 

http://www.biblestudy.org/question/what-does-the-word-easter-mean.html

 

It was a very nice history lesson, but it did not address the question unless you can show that the people of Jerusalem were celebrating a pagan goddess of fertility around 35 AD or so.

 

The Christian church didn't have to be celebrating Easter for the word to be correct in showing a time period.  The people knew of Easter. 

 

 

was Herod celebrating Easter?  If not then he was not waiting for Easter to be over, thus it was not the right word.

 

He didn't have to be celebrating it.  He just had to be aware others were celebrating it.  I have watched nations put off military action because of a Muslim holiday, and they weren't celebrating it. 

[Guest Butero]

 

Easter existed before as a pagan holiday, essentially the goddess Ishtar (Easter) of fertility.  The pagan Easter, Jewish Passover and Christian resurrection Sunday all fit around the same time, so I reckon they were combined.  Much like how Christmas falls near the start of winter, even though we know Christ wasn't born on December 25th.  It's one of those weird Catholic traditions that was started to combine pagan holidays with Christian events. 

actually, christmas being combined wasnt a catholic thing, the early christians did it to avoid peresecution by the romans-if they celebrated Christs birth on the actual day the romans would put them to death, so they combined it with the pagan holiday so the romans thought that they were celebrating the pagan one. The catholics just picked up on this and the actual day forgotten over time. Not sure on the easter part but it was likely combined as well.

 

That is interesting Patriot, and the first time I have heard it explained like that.  Do you have anything to document it?  I am not saying you are wrong, and it makes perfect sense.  I also know there is no way to prove any of the claims in absolute terms.  I was just wondering where you got the information.  Thanks. 

[LookingForAnswers]

 

 

 

 

I guess you didn't like my explanation.  But it's accurate: 

 

 

The first century church did not rename the Passover to Easter. The word is a derivative of Ishtar or Astarte. It is the name of a pagan goddess of fertility celebrated during the Spring solstice.

The introduction of Sunday as a day to commemorate the death of Christ first began after Roman Emperor Hadrian crushed a Jewish rebellion (132-135 A.D.). After his victory he rebuilt the city ruins and expelled all Jews and Christians. He undertook a policy of banning the practice of any religious ceremony or event that resembled what the Jews practiced (e.g. Saturday Sabbath, etc.).

 

 

 

http://www.biblestudy.org/question/what-does-the-word-easter-mean.html

 

It was a very nice history lesson, but it did not address the question unless you can show that the people of Jerusalem were celebrating a pagan goddess of fertility around 35 AD or so.

 

The Christian church didn't have to be celebrating Easter for the word to be correct in showing a time period.  The people knew of Easter. 

 

 

was Herod celebrating Easter?  If not then he was not waiting for Easter to be over, thus it was not the right word.

 

He didn't have to be celebrating it.  He just had to be aware others were celebrating it.  I have watched nations put off military action because of a Muslim holiday, and they weren't celebrating it. 

 

 

Well either Herod or the the people of Jerusalem had to be celebrating it or it would make no sense to be waiting for it to be over.

[Guest shiloh357]

 

This is from the AKJV

Acts12:⁴ And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

 

The word that was translated to "Easter" is the word "pascha"

 

According to Strongs:

 

pascha: the Passover, the Passover supper or lamb

Original Word: πάσχα, τό

Part of Speech: Aramaic Transliterated Word (Indeclinable)

Transliteration: pascha

Phonetic Spelling: (pas'-khah)

Short Definition: the feast of Passover, the Passover lamb

Definition: the feast of Passover, the Passover lamb.

 

 

 the word pascha was used 29 times in the NT and 28 times it was translated it as passover, yet this one time it was Easter.

 

Why is this?  Why the word Easter which clearly was not being celebrated in the 1st Century

Easter was a pagan holiday at the time, and at least in my Greek Dictionary, Easter is a legitimate English word that can be used in that passage.  This is often used by critics of the KJV Bible, but it is not an error. 

 

it is an error.  It is an error because it is not a translation of the word pascha.  There is NO possible way, the you can get Easter out of pascha.  Pascha is the Greek word for Passover and only for Passover.   It has no other meaning.  It shows that the KJV is not 100% translated from the Textus Receptus.

 

The same goes for the word "church" which has no etymological connection whatsoever to the Greek language.  "Church" is Teutonic word and is not a tranlsation of ekklesia.