The Seventy Weeks of Daniel 9

[ARGOSY]

 

 

 

 

 

24 “Seventy weeks have been decreed for your people and your holy city, to finish the transgression, to make an end of sin, to make atonement for iniquity, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal up vision and prophecy and to anoint the most holy place. 25 So you are to know and discern that from the issuing of a decree (Artaxerxes in 458BC)  to restore and rebuild Jerusalem until Messiah the Prince (JESUS OF GALILEE)  there will be seven weeks and sixty-two weeks; it will be built again, with plaza and moat, even in times of distress. 26 Then AFTER (3.5 years after)  the sixty-two weeks the Messiah will be cut off and have nothing, and the people (EVIL GALILEAN ZEALOTS) of the prince who is to come (JESUS OF GALILEE) will RUIN the city and the sanctuary (through immorality/corruption/dissension/desecration) . And its end will come with a flood (THE ROMANS IN 70AD) ; even to the end there will be war (70AD); desolations are determined (70AD) . 27 And he (JESUS THE PRINCE) will CONFIRM/STRENGTHEN  a firm covenant (THE MESSIANIC PROMISE) with the many for one week, but in the middle of the week he (JESUS) will stop the week by a gift of sacrifice (JESUS THE LAST SACRIFICE); and on the wing of abominations will come one (THE FUTURE ANTICHRIST) who makes desolate, even until a complete destruction, one that is decreed, is poured out on the one who makes desolate.”

 

After the Babylonian exile, 490 restored years are declared for the Jews.   

483 years of restoration of Israel  (458BC to 26AD)

3.5 years of the covenant Messiah received by Israel (Autumn 26 AD- Spring 30AD). At the crucifixion in 30AD they rejected Him and the 490 Jewish years were broken.

3.5 years of a future safe period of openness to the gospel - the covenant Messiah received by Israel.(Romans 11:25  Revelation 12)

The Evil Galilean Zealots were "of" Jesus?  Can you elaborate?  Based on your description (immorality/corruption/dissension/desecration) I would guess that they are "of" the evil one.

 

Can you elaborate on the final 3.5 years as to when it might fit into the rest or prophecy?  Is it when the dragon in Rev 12 persecutes Israel?  Will Jesus be back on earth then confirming/strengthening the covenant for the final 3.5 years? 

 

 

The Hebrew word for "people" is not a religious word. It refers to those from your hometown or home region. Your countrymen. Thus Jesus was from Galilee and his "people" are Galileans, just like if people from Oklahama do evil, they are still "your countrymen"  just by virtue of the fact they are from Oklahama even if you disassociate yourself from their deeds.  In the build up to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70AD it was 3 different galilean leaders that were vying for power and "Messianic status" in the build up to the Roman siege. These were known as the "Zealots" and were intensely evil and brought the city and the sanctuary to absolute moral ruin. The Hebrew word for destroy does not actually mean destroy, it means "ruin" because it can apply to a destruction, to a corruption and to rot and decay. So its usage can apply equally to what the corrupt Galileans did to the city and the temple, as well as what the Romans did to the city and the temple.

 

The final 3.5 years overlap all the 3.5 year periods of Daniel/Revelation. Yes its the period of Satan's wrath as per Rev 12. This is when the woman (Israel) is protected.

Incidentally this period starts with the victory of the gospel, which causes Satan to fall, which reminds us of Jesus words that the end will not come until the gospel is preached to all nations. Which in turn reminds us of Romans 11:25 which refers to the "fullness of the nations", thereafter Israel is open to the gospel.

 

And so I believe the final 3.5 years, the great tribulation will be a special period for Jews, where they are protected and also they are open to the gospel. Thus the gift of Jesus' sacrifice interrupted the last week, but Jesus will still confirm himself as Messiah to the Jewish nation for a further 3.5 years until the second coming. (through salvation of the Jews).

 

So, you're saying that Jesus does not come back to earth to confirm the final 3.5 years with Israel?  If that's correct, how does He do it during that time?

 

Shouldn't the part about the Messiah being cut off fall in the description of the last week instead of just "after the sixty-two weeks"?

 

 

Yes the part about being "cut off" is the same event as Jesus bringing an offering of sacrifice, his crucifixion. This occurs after the 483 years, exactly 3.5 years after. The coming of the anointed one is logically not at the triumphal entry as traditionally seen, its 3.5 years before that when Jesus was anointed in the River Jordan and publicly recognised by John the Baptist as the Messiah. Historically this occurred 483 years after the issuing of Artaxerxes decree in 458 BC. Exactly 3.5 years later Jesus is "cut off", when he gives himself as an offering of sacrifice, which stops the 70th week in the middle.

 

Jesus confirms himself to those open hearted Jews just as he confirmed Himself to you. Through salvation, heart knowledge that He is the only way. Gentiles are currently open to the gospel but after the fullness of the Gentiles, Jews will be open to the gospel (Romans 11:25). Thus for 3.5 years on earth, and for 3.5 years of the great tribulation, Jesus is revealed to the Jewish nation.  So for 7 years the Messianic promise of God is confirmed to the Jewish nation. This 7 year period is stopped in the middle by Jesus and then started again by the "abomination of desolation" ... the great appearing of the antichrist as per 2 Thessalonians 2 and Revelation 13. Daniel 12 can also be seen as alluding to this gap followed by the abomination.

 

This would then explain why Jesus only refers to the future "abomination" and not any  "peace treaty" is mentioned by Jesus. This would also explain the repeated mention of a tribulation of 3.5 years in Revelation, with no repeated mention of 7 years anywhere in the bible.

 

So you think that "to make atonement for iniquity" happened within the first 3.5 years of the seven year confirming of the covenant...at the end?

 

Do you think a temple will be rebuilt in Jerusalem then for the false prophet to declare himself as God in?

 

 

I believe all the fulfilments of Daniel 9:24 only find their completion at the second coming.

 

Yes I believe there will be a rebuilt temple, Ezekiel 40-46 describe the purification and usage of this temple in the future Messianic reign on earth. I see no reason for there to be a stoppage of sacrifices in this temple, the appearance of the antichrist amidst signs and wonders on Mount Zion will be a moment of misguided glory for Israel. This moment is their leader come to power, not the antichrist's  betraying them as often described by end-times books.

[Montana Marv]

 

 

The bolded part above is not in the Bible, not in any translation. Poor form.

 

The decree by Artaxerxes that fits the prophecy is the one from Nehemiah, in 445BC. (The 3 earlier Ezra decrees relate to the temple, not the city with wall and moat).

 

The years are 360 day years (half of these seven years is 1260 days).

 

...until Messiah, v25. What was the first occasion when Christ allowed Himself to be presented as Messiah, even pre-arranging the donkey and foal with the innkeeper? -Palm Sunday. Every earlier occasion, when the crowd got excited He would say "my hour is not yet come" or slip through the crowd to escape, or tell those receiving miracles to tell no one. He was reserving the public announcement of his role as Messiah until a particular day, which happened to be 483x360=173,880 days from the going forth of the decree, above. (This is Sir Robert Anderson's analysis, which has its detractors but I think still holds up).

 

v26: "and after 62 weeks (verse 25) (a bunch of stuff happens)". It should be noted that v26 comes between v25 and 27. This is oddly missed by many commentators. Verse 26 describes the interval between the end of the 69th week and the beginning of the 70th week.**

 

Then verse 27 deals with the 70th week, and  Rev 6-19 is basically an expansion of Dan 9:27.

 

 

------------

**This is one of the incidences of the "church gap" that shows up throughout scripture. The classic example is comparing Luke 4:17-19 with the passage Jesus quotes from in Isa 61:1,2 where Jesus stops his quote at the comma in the middle of Isa 61:2, closes the book, and leaves unsaid "and the day of vengeance..."

That "comma" has lasted almost 2000 years.

 

 

1) Hi, thanks for your analysis. Regarding "poor form", in my defense I did carefully check the Hebrew and it came as a recent revelation to me that the Hebrew word for "cease" (shabath) can just as easily apply to the preceding verb as to the next verb in the sentence.

 

The Hebrew in the English form of the Interlinear bible goes like this:  http://biblehub.com/interlinear/daniel/9-27.htm

And he shall confirm week for one and in the middle of the week to cease he shall cause the sacrifice and the offering and for the overspreading of abominations.....

 

Thus context is unclear whether the week is ceasing or the sacrifices are ceasing. All translators have chosen to assume its the sacrifices are ceasing, but a wholesale revision of preconceived notions on Daniel 9:27 is required if in fact its the week that is ceasing in the middle.

 

 

2) I know its traditional to see Hebrew years as 360 days a year, but this notion is in fact incorrect. Approximately every 6th year the Levites introduced a second month of Adar known as Adar II.  They did this to keep Adar as representing Spring and so watched for signs of spring to decide when to introduce a second Adar. Thus over the long term our years of 365 days always match Hebrew years of 360 days and occasional 390 days.  http://www.hebrew4christians.com/Holidays/Rosh_Chodesh/Adar/adar.html

 

Therefore the traditional view of looking at Nehemiah's later decree in 445BC makes no sense from an accurate Hebrew perspective. Neither does it make sense to see the exile as complete in 445BC when in fact Artaxerxes earlier decree in 458BC officially started the rebuilding of Jerusalem.  So in this respect I heartily disagree with you.

 

3) You are incorrect about the first time Christ presented himself as Messiah. This occurred at Nazareth in Luke 4:18-20.  But regardless of this, Jesus was anointed in the river Jordan and publicly was recognised as the Messiah by John the Baptists at that time, so I truly believe this was the "coming of the anointed one". So I heartily disagree with you on when the coming of the anointed one occurred. 

 

4) I believe verse 26 is a parenthesis referring to future events, then reverts back to the last week.  

 

5) I believe the 3.5 years of Daniel 9:27 b is expanded on in Revelation 6-19.

 

Argosy

 

The week cannot cease; for it has already been decreed for it to be a full week of years. Seven years, cannot be shortened.  In the middle of the week is when the sacrifices are stopped.  Go to Christs own words in Matt 24:15 - So when you see standing in the holy place the A/D spoken of through the prophet Daniel, let the reader understand, v.16 - Then Flee.  In the middle of the week is when the sacrifice is stopped and the A/D is set up.

 

In Christ

Montana Marv

[ARGOSY]

 

 

 

The bolded part above is not in the Bible, not in any translation. Poor form.

 

The decree by Artaxerxes that fits the prophecy is the one from Nehemiah, in 445BC. (The 3 earlier Ezra decrees relate to the temple, not the city with wall and moat).

 

The years are 360 day years (half of these seven years is 1260 days).

 

...until Messiah, v25. What was the first occasion when Christ allowed Himself to be presented as Messiah, even pre-arranging the donkey and foal with the innkeeper? -Palm Sunday. Every earlier occasion, when the crowd got excited He would say "my hour is not yet come" or slip through the crowd to escape, or tell those receiving miracles to tell no one. He was reserving the public announcement of his role as Messiah until a particular day, which happened to be 483x360=173,880 days from the going forth of the decree, above. (This is Sir Robert Anderson's analysis, which has its detractors but I think still holds up).

 

v26: "and after 62 weeks (verse 25) (a bunch of stuff happens)". It should be noted that v26 comes between v25 and 27. This is oddly missed by many commentators. Verse 26 describes the interval between the end of the 69th week and the beginning of the 70th week.**

 

Then verse 27 deals with the 70th week, and  Rev 6-19 is basically an expansion of Dan 9:27.

 

 

------------

**This is one of the incidences of the "church gap" that shows up throughout scripture. The classic example is comparing Luke 4:17-19 with the passage Jesus quotes from in Isa 61:1,2 where Jesus stops his quote at the comma in the middle of Isa 61:2, closes the book, and leaves unsaid "and the day of vengeance..."

That "comma" has lasted almost 2000 years.

 

 

1) Hi, thanks for your analysis. Regarding "poor form", in my defense I did carefully check the Hebrew and it came as a recent revelation to me that the Hebrew word for "cease" (shabath) can just as easily apply to the preceding verb as to the next verb in the sentence.

 

The Hebrew in the English form of the Interlinear bible goes like this:  http://biblehub.com/interlinear/daniel/9-27.htm

And he shall confirm week for one and in the middle of the week to cease he shall cause the sacrifice and the offering and for the overspreading of abominations.....

 

Thus context is unclear whether the week is ceasing or the sacrifices are ceasing. All translators have chosen to assume its the sacrifices are ceasing, but a wholesale revision of preconceived notions on Daniel 9:27 is required if in fact its the week that is ceasing in the middle.

 

 

2) I know its traditional to see Hebrew years as 360 days a year, but this notion is in fact incorrect. Approximately every 6th year the Levites introduced a second month of Adar known as Adar II.  They did this to keep Adar as representing Spring and so watched for signs of spring to decide when to introduce a second Adar. Thus over the long term our years of 365 days always match Hebrew years of 360 days and occasional 390 days.  http://www.hebrew4christians.com/Holidays/Rosh_Chodesh/Adar/adar.html

 

Therefore the traditional view of looking at Nehemiah's later decree in 445BC makes no sense from an accurate Hebrew perspective. Neither does it make sense to see the exile as complete in 445BC when in fact Artaxerxes earlier decree in 458BC officially started the rebuilding of Jerusalem.  So in this respect I heartily disagree with you.

 

3) You are incorrect about the first time Christ presented himself as Messiah. This occurred at Nazareth in Luke 4:18-20.  But regardless of this, Jesus was anointed in the river Jordan and publicly was recognised as the Messiah by John the Baptists at that time, so I truly believe this was the "coming of the anointed one". So I heartily disagree with you on when the coming of the anointed one occurred. 

 

4) I believe verse 26 is a parenthesis referring to future events, then reverts back to the last week.  

 

5) I believe the 3.5 years of Daniel 9:27 b is expanded on in Revelation 6-19.

 

Argosy

 

The week cannot cease; for it has already been decreed for it to be a full week of years. Seven years, cannot be shortened.  In the middle of the week is when the sacrifices are stopped.  Go to Christs own words in Matt 24:15 - So when you see standing in the holy place the A/D spoken of through the prophet Daniel, let the reader understand, v.16 - Then Flee.  In the middle of the week is when the sacrifice is stopped and the A/D is set up.

 

In Christ

Montana Marv

 

 

True. I believe there is a gap in the last week. It ceased in the middle, and will start up again when we see the abomination.

[Persuaded]

 

 

1) Hi, thanks for your analysis. Regarding "poor form", in my defense I did carefully check the Hebrew and it came as a recent revelation to me that the Hebrew word for "cease" (shabath) can just as easily apply to the preceding verb as to the next verb in the sentence.

 

The Hebrew in the English form of the Interlinear bible goes like this:  http://biblehub.com/interlinear/daniel/9-27.htm

And he shall confirm week for one and in the middle of the week to cease he shall cause the sacrifice and the offering and for the overspreading of abominations.....

 

Thus context is unclear whether the week is ceasing or the sacrifices are ceasing. All translators have chosen to assume its the sacrifices are ceasing, but a wholesale revision of preconceived notions on Daniel 9:27 is required if in fact its the week that is ceasing in the middle.

 

 

2) I know its traditional to see Hebrew years as 360 days a year, but this notion is in fact incorrect. Approximately every 6th year the Levites introduced a second month of Adar known as Adar II.  They did this to keep Adar as representing Spring and so watched for signs of spring to decide when to introduce a second Adar. Thus over the long term our years of 365 days always match Hebrew years of 360 days and occasional 390 days.  http://www.hebrew4christians.com/Holidays/Rosh_Chodesh/Adar/adar.html

 

Therefore the traditional view of looking at Nehemiah's later decree in 445BC makes no sense from an accurate Hebrew perspective. Neither does it make sense to see the exile as complete in 445BC when in fact Artaxerxes earlier decree in 458BC officially started the rebuilding of Jerusalem.  So in this respect I heartily disagree with you.

 

3) You are incorrect about the first time Christ presented himself as Messiah. This occurred at Nazareth in Luke 4:18-20.  But regardless of this, Jesus was anointed in the river Jordan and publicly was recognised as the Messiah by John the Baptists at that time, so I truly believe this was the "coming of the anointed one". So I heartily disagree with you on when the coming of the anointed one occurred. 

 

4) I believe verse 26 is a parenthesis referring to future events, then reverts back to the last week.  

 

5) I believe the 3.5 years of Daniel 9:27 b is expanded on in Revelation 6-19.

 

Yowza. I'd be pretty careful about re-writing the dozens of translations out there based on a clearly limited understanding of Hebrew syntax. Even the LXX (as translated by pre-Christian jews, presumably without any of our eschatological bias) says the sacrifices are stopped, not the week.

 

So the Bible says 1260 days is 42 months is 3.5 years, but you'd like to use the civil calendar instead. The Bible says the commandment relates to the rebuilding of the wall and moat (which entails the authority to become a city-state), but you say we should use the one that relates to the temple in Ezra.

 

As David was anointed king many years before he became king, so Jesus was anointed (thousands of) years before He will sit on His throne. John the Baptist recognized Him as the (pecach) lamb of God that takes away the sins of the world. He certainly did nothing to fulfill His role as Messiah the King in Luke 4- indeed they tried to kill Him later in that address. And His "my hour is not yet come" statements after these two events indicate He was reserving the announcement for a particular moment. Indeed, as the Pharisees rebuke Him for the (apparent) blasphemy of the people as He enters the city:

 

[Luk 19:41-44 KJV] And when he was come near, he beheld the city, and wept over it,

Saying, If thou hadst known, even thou, at least in this thy day, the things [which belong] unto thy peace! but now they are hid from thine eyes.

For the days shall come upon thee, that thine enemies shall cast a trench about thee, and compass thee round, and keep thee in on every side,

And shall lay thee even with the ground, and thy children within thee; and they shall not leave in thee one stone upon another; because thou knewest not the time of thy visitation.

 

I take this to mean that Jesus held them accountable to have read and understood Dan 9.

[iamlamad]

 

 

The bolded part above is not in the Bible, not in any translation. Poor form.

 

The decree by Artaxerxes that fits the prophecy is the one from Nehemiah, in 445BC. (The 3 earlier Ezra decrees relate to the temple, not the city with wall and moat).

 

The years are 360 day years (half of these seven years is 1260 days).

 

...until Messiah, v25. What was the first occasion when Christ allowed Himself to be presented as Messiah, even pre-arranging the donkey and foal with the innkeeper? -Palm Sunday. Every earlier occasion, when the crowd got excited He would say "my hour is not yet come" or slip through the crowd to escape, or tell those receiving miracles to tell no one. He was reserving the public announcement of his role as Messiah until a particular day, which happened to be 483x360=173,880 days from the going forth of the decree, above. (This is Sir Robert Anderson's analysis, which has its detractors but I think still holds up).

 

v26: "and after 62 weeks (verse 25) (a bunch of stuff happens)". It should be noted that v26 comes between v25 and 27. This is oddly missed by many commentators. Verse 26 describes the interval between the end of the 69th week and the beginning of the 70th week.**

 

Then verse 27 deals with the 70th week, and  Rev 6-19 is basically an expansion of Dan 9:27.

 

 

------------

**This is one of the incidences of the "church gap" that shows up throughout scripture. The classic example is comparing Luke 4:17-19 with the passage Jesus quotes from in Isa 61:1,2 where Jesus stops his quote at the comma in the middle of Isa 61:2, closes the book, and leaves unsaid "and the day of vengeance..."

That "comma" has lasted almost 2000 years.

 

 

1) Hi, thanks for your analysis. Regarding "poor form", in my defense I did carefully check the Hebrew and it came as a recent revelation to me that the Hebrew word for "cease" (shabath) can just as easily apply to the preceding verb as to the next verb in the sentence.

 

The Hebrew in the English form of the Interlinear bible goes like this:  http://biblehub.com/interlinear/daniel/9-27.htm

And he shall confirm week for one and in the middle of the week to cease he shall cause the sacrifice and the offering and for the overspreading of abominations.....

 

Thus context is unclear whether the week is ceasing or the sacrifices are ceasing. All translators have chosen to assume its the sacrifices are ceasing, but a wholesale revision of preconceived notions on Daniel 9:27 is required if in fact its the week that is ceasing in the middle.

 

 

2) I know its traditional to see Hebrew years as 360 days a year, but this notion is in fact incorrect. Approximately every 6th year the Levites introduced a second month of Adar known as Adar II.  They did this to keep Adar as representing Spring and so watched for signs of spring to decide when to introduce a second Adar. Thus over the long term our years of 365 days always match Hebrew years of 360 days and occasional 390 days.  http://www.hebrew4christians.com/Holidays/Rosh_Chodesh/Adar/adar.html

 

Therefore the traditional view of looking at Nehemiah's later decree in 445BC makes no sense from an accurate Hebrew perspective. Neither does it make sense to see the exile as complete in 445BC when in fact Artaxerxes earlier decree in 458BC officially started the rebuilding of Jerusalem.  So in this respect I heartily disagree with you.

 

3) You are incorrect about the first time Christ presented himself as Messiah. This occurred at Nazareth in Luke 4:18-20.  But regardless of this, Jesus was anointed in the river Jordan and publicly was recognised as the Messiah by John the Baptists at that time, so I truly believe this was the "coming of the anointed one". So I heartily disagree with you on when the coming of the anointed one occurred. 

 

4) I believe verse 26 is a parenthesis referring to future events, then reverts back to the last week.  

 

5) I believe the 3.5 years of Daniel 9:27 b is expanded on in Revelation 6-19.

 

 

HOW could one cut something in half if half is all that is left? In that case it would be cutting into quarters.

(Midst in Dan. 9:27 comes from a Hebrew word to divide in half.)

 

What is half of a seven year period? John tells us it is 3 1/2 years in Rev. 12.

What is 7 years in days? 7 * 360  = 2520

What is half of 2520? John tells us it is 1260 days TWICE: Rev. 11 & 12.

What is 7 years in months?  7 * 12 - 84

What is half of 84? John tells us twice it is 42 months.

 

Daniel mentions a three and one half year period twice.

John mentions that same time period five more times.

 

Therefore it is silly to think there is only 3 1/2 years remaining of the 70th week. One cannot cut one half of one week into half and still have two halves. John is telling us the ENTIRE 70th week is laid out for us in Revelation. The first half of the week is from the 7th seal to the 7th trumpet. The second half of the week is from the 7th trumpet to the 7th vial.

 

What I am trying to say is, you MUST have an entire week of 7 years if you end up with 3 1/2 when you divide it. It is the abomination that divides the week into two halves. The abomination takes place in Rev. 11. How could he divide a week into two halves if there is only one half left when he comes? The man of sin turns to Beast in Rev. 13. He sets up the image and the mark in chapter 13, so the days of great tribulation begin. So where is the first half of the week? Of course it is what we read in chapters 8 through 10. The trumpet judgments come in the first half of the 70th week.

 

So the ENTIRE 70th week is FUTURE to us today, but will soon come to pass.

 

LAMAD

 

[ARGOSY]

 

 

 

1) Hi, thanks for your analysis. Regarding "poor form", in my defense I did carefully check the Hebrew and it came as a recent revelation to me that the Hebrew word for "cease" (shabath) can just as easily apply to the preceding verb as to the next verb in the sentence.

 

The Hebrew in the English form of the Interlinear bible goes like this:  http://biblehub.com/interlinear/daniel/9-27.htm

And he shall confirm week for one and in the middle of the week to cease he shall cause the sacrifice and the offering and for the overspreading of abominations.....

 

Thus context is unclear whether the week is ceasing or the sacrifices are ceasing. All translators have chosen to assume its the sacrifices are ceasing, but a wholesale revision of preconceived notions on Daniel 9:27 is required if in fact its the week that is ceasing in the middle.

 

 

2) I know its traditional to see Hebrew years as 360 days a year, but this notion is in fact incorrect. Approximately every 6th year the Levites introduced a second month of Adar known as Adar II.  They did this to keep Adar as representing Spring and so watched for signs of spring to decide when to introduce a second Adar. Thus over the long term our years of 365 days always match Hebrew years of 360 days and occasional 390 days.  http://www.hebrew4christians.com/Holidays/Rosh_Chodesh/Adar/adar.html

 

Therefore the traditional view of looking at Nehemiah's later decree in 445BC makes no sense from an accurate Hebrew perspective. Neither does it make sense to see the exile as complete in 445BC when in fact Artaxerxes earlier decree in 458BC officially started the rebuilding of Jerusalem.  So in this respect I heartily disagree with you.

 

3) You are incorrect about the first time Christ presented himself as Messiah. This occurred at Nazareth in Luke 4:18-20.  But regardless of this, Jesus was anointed in the river Jordan and publicly was recognised as the Messiah by John the Baptists at that time, so I truly believe this was the "coming of the anointed one". So I heartily disagree with you on when the coming of the anointed one occurred. 

 

4) I believe verse 26 is a parenthesis referring to future events, then reverts back to the last week.  

 

5) I believe the 3.5 years of Daniel 9:27 b is expanded on in Revelation 6-19.

 

Yowza. I'd be pretty careful about re-writing the dozens of translations out there based on a clearly limited understanding of Hebrew syntax. Even the LXX (as translated by pre-Christian jews, presumably without any of our eschatological bias) says the sacrifices are stopped, not the week.

 

So the Bible says 1260 days is 42 months is 3.5 years, but you'd like to use the civil calendar instead. The Bible says the commandment relates to the rebuilding of the wall and moat (which entails the authority to become a city-state), but you say we should use the one that relates to the temple in Ezra.

 

As David was anointed king many years before he became king, so Jesus was anointed (thousands of) years before He will sit on His throne. John the Baptist recognized Him as the (pecach) lamb of God that takes away the sins of the world. He certainly did nothing to fulfill His role as Messiah the King in Luke 4- indeed they tried to kill Him later in that address. And His "my hour is not yet come" statements after these two events indicate He was reserving the announcement for a particular moment. Indeed, as the Pharisees rebuke Him for the (apparent) blasphemy of the people as He enters the city:

 

[Luk 19:41-44 KJV] And when he was come near, he beheld the city, and wept over it,

Saying, If thou hadst known, even thou, at least in this thy day, the things [which belong] unto thy peace! but now they are hid from thine eyes.

For the days shall come upon thee, that thine enemies shall cast a trench about thee, and compass thee round, and keep thee in on every side,

And shall lay thee even with the ground, and thy children within thee; and they shall not leave in thee one stone upon another; because thou knewest not the time of thy visitation.

 

I take this to mean that Jesus held them accountable to have read and understood Dan 9.

 

Hi Persuaded, I tried to find evidence for your point but I couldn't find a good English/Ancient Greek translation of the LXX,  the following rendering isn't clear enough to make your point. Please support your point that the ancient Greeks understood the Hebrew to mean that the sacrifices stopped, and not the week stopped.

_(+DAT) τῷ _{THE (DAT)} κατισχῦσαι _{TO-???, BE-YOU(SG)-???-ED!, HE/SHE/IT-HAPPENS-TO-??? (OPT)} τὴν _{THE (ACC)}διαθήκην _{COVENANT (ACC)} ἐπὶ _{UPON/OVER (+ACC,+GEN,+DAT)} πολλὰς _{MANY (ACC)} ἑβδομάδας καὶ _AND ἐν _{IN/AMONG/BY (+DAT)} τῷ _{THE (DAT)} τέλει _{END (DAT); HE/SHE/IT-IS-END-ING, YOU(SG)-ARE-BEING-END-ED (CLASSICAL), BE-YOU(SG)-END-ING!} τῆς _{THE (GEN)} ἑβδομάδος ἀρθήσεται _{HE/SHE/IT-WILL-BE-LIFT/PICK-ED-UP} ἡ _{THE (NOM)} θυσία _{SACRIFICE (NOM|VOC)} καὶ _AND ἡ _{THE (NOM)} σπονδή καὶ _AND ἐπὶ _{UPON/OVER (+ACC,+GEN,+DAT)} τὸ _{THE (NOM|ACC)}ἱερὸν _{SANCTUARY (NOM|ACC|VOC); SACRED ([ADJ] ACC, NOM|ACC|VOC)} βδέλυγμα _{ABOMINATION (NOM|ACC|VOC)} τῶν _{THE (GEN)} ἐρημώσεων _{DEVASTATIONS (GEN)} ἔσται _{HE/SHE/IT-WILL-BE} ἕως _{UNTIL; DAWN (NOM|VOC), DAWNS (ACC)}συντελείας _{COMPLETION (GEN), COMPLETIONS (ACC)} καὶ _AND συντέλεια _{COMPLETION (NOM|VOC)} δοθήσεται _{HE/SHE/IT-WILL-BE-GIVE-ED} ἐπὶ _{UPON/OVER (+ACC,+GEN,+DAT)} τὴν _{THE (ACC)} ἐρήμωσιν _{DEVASTATION (ACC); THEY-SHOULD-BE-LAY-ING-WASTE}

 

Regarding 1260 days and 42 months equalling 3.5 years, this is what I said too. I said that approximately every 6 years there is a 390 day year when they add in Adar II. So most times a 3.5 year period will equal 42 months, I see no contradiction there. There is however a contradiction if you regard Jewish years as not being seasonal based , this has never ever occurred in history, Adar is ALWAYS around spring time., as do the other 12 months always stay within their appropriate seasons. So the theory of shortened years over the full 490 years is just theoretical, unrelated to the reality of the Jewish calendar.

 

I think we have both stated our cases regarding the "coming of the anointed one". we obviously will not agree, but those following this thread can decide for themselves whether the coming of the "anointed one" occurred at his anointing in Jordan, or his triumphal entry into Jerusalem 3.5 years later. Jesus' ministry was 3.5 years long, started at the coming of the anointed one, which occurred exactly 483 years after the decree of Artaxerxes. Jesus did confirm God's promise, Jesus did give an offering of sacrifice 3.5 years later.  Eureka! we have a fit!   No need to look for an antichrist to make a peace treaty when that verse has already been fulfilled.

[ARGOSY]

 

 

 

The bolded part above is not in the Bible, not in any translation. Poor form.

 

The decree by Artaxerxes that fits the prophecy is the one from Nehemiah, in 445BC. (The 3 earlier Ezra decrees relate to the temple, not the city with wall and moat).

 

The years are 360 day years (half of these seven years is 1260 days).

 

...until Messiah, v25. What was the first occasion when Christ allowed Himself to be presented as Messiah, even pre-arranging the donkey and foal with the innkeeper? -Palm Sunday. Every earlier occasion, when the crowd got excited He would say "my hour is not yet come" or slip through the crowd to escape, or tell those receiving miracles to tell no one. He was reserving the public announcement of his role as Messiah until a particular day, which happened to be 483x360=173,880 days from the going forth of the decree, above. (This is Sir Robert Anderson's analysis, which has its detractors but I think still holds up).

 

v26: "and after 62 weeks (verse 25) (a bunch of stuff happens)". It should be noted that v26 comes between v25 and 27. This is oddly missed by many commentators. Verse 26 describes the interval between the end of the 69th week and the beginning of the 70th week.**

 

Then verse 27 deals with the 70th week, and  Rev 6-19 is basically an expansion of Dan 9:27.

 

 

------------

**This is one of the incidences of the "church gap" that shows up throughout scripture. The classic example is comparing Luke 4:17-19 with the passage Jesus quotes from in Isa 61:1,2 where Jesus stops his quote at the comma in the middle of Isa 61:2, closes the book, and leaves unsaid "and the day of vengeance..."

That "comma" has lasted almost 2000 years.

 

 

1) Hi, thanks for your analysis. Regarding "poor form", in my defense I did carefully check the Hebrew and it came as a recent revelation to me that the Hebrew word for "cease" (shabath) can just as easily apply to the preceding verb as to the next verb in the sentence.

 

The Hebrew in the English form of the Interlinear bible goes like this:  http://biblehub.com/interlinear/daniel/9-27.htm

And he shall confirm week for one and in the middle of the week to cease he shall cause the sacrifice and the offering and for the overspreading of abominations.....

 

Thus context is unclear whether the week is ceasing or the sacrifices are ceasing. All translators have chosen to assume its the sacrifices are ceasing, but a wholesale revision of preconceived notions on Daniel 9:27 is required if in fact its the week that is ceasing in the middle.

 

 

2) I know its traditional to see Hebrew years as 360 days a year, but this notion is in fact incorrect. Approximately every 6th year the Levites introduced a second month of Adar known as Adar II.  They did this to keep Adar as representing Spring and so watched for signs of spring to decide when to introduce a second Adar. Thus over the long term our years of 365 days always match Hebrew years of 360 days and occasional 390 days.  http://www.hebrew4christians.com/Holidays/Rosh_Chodesh/Adar/adar.html

 

Therefore the traditional view of looking at Nehemiah's later decree in 445BC makes no sense from an accurate Hebrew perspective. Neither does it make sense to see the exile as complete in 445BC when in fact Artaxerxes earlier decree in 458BC officially started the rebuilding of Jerusalem.  So in this respect I heartily disagree with you.

 

3) You are incorrect about the first time Christ presented himself as Messiah. This occurred at Nazareth in Luke 4:18-20.  But regardless of this, Jesus was anointed in the river Jordan and publicly was recognised as the Messiah by John the Baptists at that time, so I truly believe this was the "coming of the anointed one". So I heartily disagree with you on when the coming of the anointed one occurred. 

 

4) I believe verse 26 is a parenthesis referring to future events, then reverts back to the last week.  

 

5) I believe the 3.5 years of Daniel 9:27 b is expanded on in Revelation 6-19.

 

 

HOW could one cut something in half if half is all that is left? In that case it would be cutting into quarters.

(Midst in Dan. 9:27 comes from a Hebrew word to divide in half.)

 

What is half of a seven year period? John tells us it is 3 1/2 years in Rev. 12.

What is 7 years in days? 7 * 360  = 2520

What is half of 2520? John tells us it is 1260 days TWICE: Rev. 11 & 12.

What is 7 years in months?  7 * 12 - 84

What is half of 84? John tells us twice it is 42 months.

 

Daniel mentions a three and one half year period twice.

John mentions that same time period five more times.

 

Therefore it is silly to think there is only 3 1/2 years remaining of the 70th week. One cannot cut one half of one week into half and still have two halves. John is telling us the ENTIRE 70th week is laid out for us in Revelation. The first half of the week is from the 7th seal to the 7th trumpet. The second half of the week is from the 7th trumpet to the 7th vial.

 

What I am trying to say is, you MUST have an entire week of 7 years if you end up with 3 1/2 when you divide it. It is the abomination that divides the week into two halves. The abomination takes place in Rev. 11. How could he divide a week into two halves if there is only one half left when he comes? The man of sin turns to Beast in Rev. 13. He sets up the image and the mark in chapter 13, so the days of great tribulation begin. So where is the first half of the week? Of course it is what we read in chapters 8 through 10. The trumpet judgments come in the first half of the 70th week.

 

So the ENTIRE 70th week is FUTURE to us today, but will soon come to pass.

 

LAMAD

 

Hi LAMAD,

 

I'm saying that Jesus fulfilled the first 3.5 years of the final week and then the week stopped at that time.

 

When the abomination appears the week will start up again. Due to the fact Jesus did confirm a covenant and 3.5 years later was the final sacrifice, means that the antichrist does not need to do this as well. The antichrist comes to power for 3.5 years as per Revelation 13. 

 

The New Testament does not mention ANY 7 year period, and does not mention ANY peace treaty, only a final 3.5 year period is mentioned in the NT>

[iamlamad]

 

 

 

 

The bolded part above is not in the Bible, not in any translation. Poor form.

 

The decree by Artaxerxes that fits the prophecy is the one from Nehemiah, in 445BC. (The 3 earlier Ezra decrees relate to the temple, not the city with wall and moat).

 

The years are 360 day years (half of these seven years is 1260 days).

 

...until Messiah, v25. What was the first occasion when Christ allowed Himself to be presented as Messiah, even pre-arranging the donkey and foal with the innkeeper? -Palm Sunday. Every earlier occasion, when the crowd got excited He would say "my hour is not yet come" or slip through the crowd to escape, or tell those receiving miracles to tell no one. He was reserving the public announcement of his role as Messiah until a particular day, which happened to be 483x360=173,880 days from the going forth of the decree, above. (This is Sir Robert Anderson's analysis, which has its detractors but I think still holds up).

 

v26: "and after 62 weeks (verse 25) (a bunch of stuff happens)". It should be noted that v26 comes between v25 and 27. This is oddly missed by many commentators. Verse 26 describes the interval between the end of the 69th week and the beginning of the 70th week.**

 

Then verse 27 deals with the 70th week, and  Rev 6-19 is basically an expansion of Dan 9:27.

 

 

------------

**This is one of the incidences of the "church gap" that shows up throughout scripture. The classic example is comparing Luke 4:17-19 with the passage Jesus quotes from in Isa 61:1,2 where Jesus stops his quote at the comma in the middle of Isa 61:2, closes the book, and leaves unsaid "and the day of vengeance..."

That "comma" has lasted almost 2000 years.

 

 

1) Hi, thanks for your analysis. Regarding "poor form", in my defense I did carefully check the Hebrew and it came as a recent revelation to me that the Hebrew word for "cease" (shabath) can just as easily apply to the preceding verb as to the next verb in the sentence.

 

The Hebrew in the English form of the Interlinear bible goes like this:  http://biblehub.com/interlinear/daniel/9-27.htm

And he shall confirm week for one and in the middle of the week to cease he shall cause the sacrifice and the offering and for the overspreading of abominations.....

 

Thus context is unclear whether the week is ceasing or the sacrifices are ceasing. All translators have chosen to assume its the sacrifices are ceasing, but a wholesale revision of preconceived notions on Daniel 9:27 is required if in fact its the week that is ceasing in the middle.

 

 

2) I know its traditional to see Hebrew years as 360 days a year, but this notion is in fact incorrect. Approximately every 6th year the Levites introduced a second month of Adar known as Adar II.  They did this to keep Adar as representing Spring and so watched for signs of spring to decide when to introduce a second Adar. Thus over the long term our years of 365 days always match Hebrew years of 360 days and occasional 390 days.  http://www.hebrew4christians.com/Holidays/Rosh_Chodesh/Adar/adar.html

 

Therefore the traditional view of looking at Nehemiah's later decree in 445BC makes no sense from an accurate Hebrew perspective. Neither does it make sense to see the exile as complete in 445BC when in fact Artaxerxes earlier decree in 458BC officially started the rebuilding of Jerusalem.  So in this respect I heartily disagree with you.

 

3) You are incorrect about the first time Christ presented himself as Messiah. This occurred at Nazareth in Luke 4:18-20.  But regardless of this, Jesus was anointed in the river Jordan and publicly was recognised as the Messiah by John the Baptists at that time, so I truly believe this was the "coming of the anointed one". So I heartily disagree with you on when the coming of the anointed one occurred. 

 

4) I believe verse 26 is a parenthesis referring to future events, then reverts back to the last week.  

 

5) I believe the 3.5 years of Daniel 9:27 b is expanded on in Revelation 6-19.

 

 

HOW could one cut something in half if half is all that is left? In that case it would be cutting into quarters.

(Midst in Dan. 9:27 comes from a Hebrew word to divide in half.)

 

What is half of a seven year period? John tells us it is 3 1/2 years in Rev. 12.

What is 7 years in days? 7 * 360  = 2520

What is half of 2520? John tells us it is 1260 days TWICE: Rev. 11 & 12.

What is 7 years in months?  7 * 12 - 84

What is half of 84? John tells us twice it is 42 months.

 

Daniel mentions a three and one half year period twice.

John mentions that same time period five more times.

 

Therefore it is silly to think there is only 3 1/2 years remaining of the 70th week. One cannot cut one half of one week into half and still have two halves. John is telling us the ENTIRE 70th week is laid out for us in Revelation. The first half of the week is from the 7th seal to the 7th trumpet. The second half of the week is from the 7th trumpet to the 7th vial.

 

What I am trying to say is, you MUST have an entire week of 7 years if you end up with 3 1/2 when you divide it. It is the abomination that divides the week into two halves. The abomination takes place in Rev. 11. How could he divide a week into two halves if there is only one half left when he comes? The man of sin turns to Beast in Rev. 13. He sets up the image and the mark in chapter 13, so the days of great tribulation begin. So where is the first half of the week? Of course it is what we read in chapters 8 through 10. The trumpet judgments come in the first half of the 70th week.

 

So the ENTIRE 70th week is FUTURE to us today, but will soon come to pass.

 

LAMAD

 

Hi LAMAD,

 

I'm saying that Jesus fulfilled the first 3.5 years of the final week and then the week stopped at that time.

 

When the abomination appears the week will start up again. Due to the fact Jesus did confirm a covenant and 3.5 years later was the final sacrifice, means that the antichrist does not need to do this as well. The antichrist comes to power for 3.5 years as per Revelation 13. 

 

The New Testament does not mention ANY 7 year period, and does not mention ANY peace treaty, only a final 3.5 year period is mentioned in the NT>

 

I know what you are saying. I am saying that theory is simply impossible. The abomination that divides the week could not possibly divide half a week and end up with a half. There MUST BE an entire week left for him to divided. If the abomination divided a half of a week, John would have talked about 21 months and 630 days, which of course he did not. Daniel tells us the abomination divides the week - not 2000 years to divide the week. Next, it is only a theory that cannot be proven that Jesus ministered for exactly 1260 days. If one of the gospels had given us 1260 days, this theory might have a leg to stand on. As it is, it is only a theory with no scripture to back it up. Finally, Revelation shows us the first half of the week, still in our future.

 

You said the New Testament does not mention ANY 7 year period. No, not in so many words, it does not. But with careful study, the first half of the week is very visible in Revelation, for the entire week is MARKED with 7's. The first half of the week goes from the 7th seal to the 7th trumpet.

 

Since Jesus in His Olivet discourse skipped right over the first half of the week, I suspect that the 7 year treaty will be done in secret and few will know anything about it. If that is the case, the only way someone will know that the 70th week has come will be shortly after the rapture and worldwide earthquake that begins the Day of the Lord, when the first trumpet judgment comes and all the grass is burned up. I personally think this speaks of nuclear war. Joel tells us the cattle will be perplexed because they have no pasture. However, God may well have another way to burn up all the grass. I don't believe this means every blade of grass on the planet. I suspect it will be only in some portions of the planet. John is not very specific on that point.

 

LAMAD

[iamlamad]

 

 

 

 

1) Hi, thanks for your analysis. Regarding "poor form", in my defense I did carefully check the Hebrew and it came as a recent revelation to me that the Hebrew word for "cease" (shabath) can just as easily apply to the preceding verb as to the next verb in the sentence.

 

The Hebrew in the English form of the Interlinear bible goes like this:  http://biblehub.com/interlinear/daniel/9-27.htm

And he shall confirm week for one and in the middle of the week to cease he shall cause the sacrifice and the offering and for the overspreading of abominations.....

 

Thus context is unclear whether the week is ceasing or the sacrifices are ceasing. All translators have chosen to assume its the sacrifices are ceasing, but a wholesale revision of preconceived notions on Daniel 9:27 is required if in fact its the week that is ceasing in the middle.

 

 

2) I know its traditional to see Hebrew years as 360 days a year, but this notion is in fact incorrect. Approximately every 6th year the Levites introduced a second month of Adar known as Adar II.  They did this to keep Adar as representing Spring and so watched for signs of spring to decide when to introduce a second Adar. Thus over the long term our years of 365 days always match Hebrew years of 360 days and occasional 390 days.  http://www.hebrew4christians.com/Holidays/Rosh_Chodesh/Adar/adar.html

 

Therefore the traditional view of looking at Nehemiah's later decree in 445BC makes no sense from an accurate Hebrew perspective. Neither does it make sense to see the exile as complete in 445BC when in fact Artaxerxes earlier decree in 458BC officially started the rebuilding of Jerusalem.  So in this respect I heartily disagree with you.

 

3) You are incorrect about the first time Christ presented himself as Messiah. This occurred at Nazareth in Luke 4:18-20.  But regardless of this, Jesus was anointed in the river Jordan and publicly was recognised as the Messiah by John the Baptists at that time, so I truly believe this was the "coming of the anointed one". So I heartily disagree with you on when the coming of the anointed one occurred. 

 

4) I believe verse 26 is a parenthesis referring to future events, then reverts back to the last week.  

 

5) I believe the 3.5 years of Daniel 9:27 b is expanded on in Revelation 6-19.

 

Yowza. I'd be pretty careful about re-writing the dozens of translations out there based on a clearly limited understanding of Hebrew syntax. Even the LXX (as translated by pre-Christian jews, presumably without any of our eschatological bias) says the sacrifices are stopped, not the week.

 

So the Bible says 1260 days is 42 months is 3.5 years, but you'd like to use the civil calendar instead. The Bible says the commandment relates to the rebuilding of the wall and moat (which entails the authority to become a city-state), but you say we should use the one that relates to the temple in Ezra.

 

As David was anointed king many years before he became king, so Jesus was anointed (thousands of) years before He will sit on His throne. John the Baptist recognized Him as the (pecach) lamb of God that takes away the sins of the world. He certainly did nothing to fulfill His role as Messiah the King in Luke 4- indeed they tried to kill Him later in that address. And His "my hour is not yet come" statements after these two events indicate He was reserving the announcement for a particular moment. Indeed, as the Pharisees rebuke Him for the (apparent) blasphemy of the people as He enters the city:

 

[Luk 19:41-44 KJV] And when he was come near, he beheld the city, and wept over it,

Saying, If thou hadst known, even thou, at least in this thy day, the things [which belong] unto thy peace! but now they are hid from thine eyes.

For the days shall come upon thee, that thine enemies shall cast a trench about thee, and compass thee round, and keep thee in on every side,

And shall lay thee even with the ground, and thy children within thee; and they shall not leave in thee one stone upon another; because thou knewest not the time of thy visitation.

 

I take this to mean that Jesus held them accountable to have read and understood Dan 9.

 

Hi Persuaded, I tried to find evidence for your point but I couldn't find a good English/Ancient Greek translation of the LXX,  the following rendering isn't clear enough to make your point. Please support your point that the ancient Greeks understood the Hebrew to mean that the sacrifices stopped, and not the week stopped.

_(+DAT) τῷ _{THE (DAT)} κατισχῦσαι _{TO-???, BE-YOU(SG)-???-ED!, HE/SHE/IT-HAPPENS-TO-??? (OPT)} τὴν _{THE (ACC)}διαθήκην _{COVENANT (ACC)} ἐπὶ _{UPON/OVER (+ACC,+GEN,+DAT)} πολλὰς _{MANY (ACC)} ἑβδομάδας καὶ _AND ἐν _{IN/AMONG/BY (+DAT)} τῷ _{THE (DAT)} τέλει _{END (DAT); HE/SHE/IT-IS-END-ING, YOU(SG)-ARE-BEING-END-ED (CLASSICAL), BE-YOU(SG)-END-ING!} τῆς _{THE (GEN)} ἑβδομάδος ἀρθήσεται _{HE/SHE/IT-WILL-BE-LIFT/PICK-ED-UP} ἡ _{THE (NOM)} θυσία _{SACRIFICE (NOM|VOC)} καὶ _AND ἡ _{THE (NOM)} σπονδή καὶ _AND ἐπὶ _{UPON/OVER (+ACC,+GEN,+DAT)} τὸ _{THE (NOM|ACC)}ἱερὸν _{SANCTUARY (NOM|ACC|VOC); SACRED ([ADJ] ACC, NOM|ACC|VOC)} βδέλυγμα _{ABOMINATION (NOM|ACC|VOC)} τῶν _{THE (GEN)} ἐρημώσεων _{DEVASTATIONS (GEN)} ἔσται _{HE/SHE/IT-WILL-BE} ἕως _{UNTIL; DAWN (NOM|VOC), DAWNS (ACC)}συντελείας _{COMPLETION (GEN), COMPLETIONS (ACC)} καὶ _AND συντέλεια _{COMPLETION (NOM|VOC)} δοθήσεται _{HE/SHE/IT-WILL-BE-GIVE-ED} ἐπὶ _{UPON/OVER (+ACC,+GEN,+DAT)} τὴν _{THE (ACC)} ἐρήμωσιν _{DEVASTATION (ACC); THEY-SHOULD-BE-LAY-ING-WASTE}

 

Regarding 1260 days and 42 months equalling 3.5 years, this is what I said too. I said that approximately every 6 years there is a 390 day year when they add in Adar II. So most times a 3.5 year period will equal 42 months, I see no contradiction there. There is however a contradiction if you regard Jewish years as not being seasonal based , this has never ever occurred in history, Adar is ALWAYS around spring time., as do the other 12 months always stay within their appropriate seasons. So the theory of shortened years over the full 490 years is just theoretical, unrelated to the reality of the Jewish calendar.

 

I think we have both stated our cases regarding the "coming of the anointed one". we obviously will not agree, but those following this thread can decide for themselves whether the coming of the "anointed one" occurred at his anointing in Jordan, or his triumphal entry into Jerusalem 3.5 years later. Jesus' ministry was 3.5 years long, started at the coming of the anointed one, which occurred exactly 483 years after the decree of Artaxerxes. Jesus did confirm God's promise, Jesus did give an offering of sacrifice 3.5 years later.  Eureka! we have a fit!   No need to look for an antichrist to make a peace treaty when that verse has already been fulfilled.

 

Please show us this 3 1/2 years clearly in the gospels. I think you are believing a fantasy. Why would God show us the last half of the week so clearly in days, months and years, 7 times, and not show us the first half in the gospels at all? Sorry, I don't buy this theory. It is only a guess that Jesus ministered for 3 1/2 years.

 

LAMAD

[Persuaded]

Hi Persuaded, I tried to find evidence for your point but I couldn't find a good English/Ancient Greek translation of the LXX,  the following rendering isn't clear enough to make your point. Please support your point that the ancient Greeks understood the Hebrew to mean that the sacrifices stopped, and not the week stopped.

 

 

Just the first half-dozen online LXX translations I find with google. They all say the same thing:

 

http://www.ecmarsh.com/lxx/Daniel/index.htm :

"27 And one week shall establish the covenant with many: and in the midst of the week my sacrifice and drink-offering shall be taken away: and on the temple shall be the abomination of desolations; and at the end of time an end shall be put to the desolation."

 

and here's two from two different greek sources, from http://ccat.sas.upenn.edu/nets/edition/40-daniel-nets.pdf :

"And in half of the week the sacrifice and the libation will cease, and in the temple there will be an abomination of desolations until the consummation of a season, and a consummation will be given for the desolation.” "

"And itd will strengthen a covenant with many, one week, and by half of the week sacrifice and libation will cease, and in the temple there will be an abomination of desolations even until a consummation, and a consummation will be given for the desolation.” (dAntecedent unclear )