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KiwiChristian

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12 hours ago, LadyKay said:

This on going bashing of the NIV is getting old. You prefer the KJV over the NIV? Fine. Good for you. I am glad you. But that is no reason to be bashing on other translations.  While I prefer my Holman Study Bible, I do not come here and bash on the KJV of the Bible, even though I feel my Holman Study Bible has given me a clearer understand of God's word  then what  the KJV Bible dose.  Furthermore bashing on the NIV shows a  a lack of understanding about how the translation came about. 

For many including myself, the NIV was our first Bible after we got saved. It got us into God's word and guided our paths as we started our walk on this Christian journey. I know that my worn out, over used NIV Bible I got as a High School graduation gift from my church over 20 years ago help me in my Christian walk. It is full of highlitted passages and side notes. It made God's word easy for me to understand.  

That's it. 

I never even MENTIONED the KJV.

 

Yes, there IS a reason to "bash" other translations if those translations are FALSE

 

What texts did your "holman study bible" use to translate the Word of God?

 

And, please dont say "the Greek" or "the Hebrew". WHICH?

 

Wow, MANS opinions offered in side-notes? The Bible speaks for itself.


Show me a passage in the KJV that you find hard to understand.

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12 hours ago, White Rabbitt said:

Maybe the KJV added that stuff and it doesn't belong there

 

Yes, that's why you need to study the SOURCES used for the KJV and the modern perVersion.

 

 

12 hours ago, White Rabbitt said:

Besides, the KJV had the apochrapha and tons of other junk

 

What other "junk"? And who determines what is "junk" and why?

Yes, the KJV HAD the apocrypha. It was never included as Scripture.

The Apocrypha was accepted reading based on its historical value, though not accepted as Scripture by anyone outside of' the Catholic church. The King James translators therefore placed it between the Old and New Testaments for its historical benefit to its readers. They did not integrate it into the Old Testament text as do the corrupt Alexandrian manuscripts.

12 hours ago, White Rabbitt said:

Besides, KJV is not even English

 

Really? I can only read English and i dont have a problem with it.

 

12 hours ago, White Rabbitt said:

Where are you from

New Zealand.

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40 minutes ago, KiwiChristian said:

doubt-laden footnotes. haha.

 

I would NEVER demote Gods Word to a mere footnote. how dare they!

Certain of the original copied manuscripts are not considered as authoritative as others, because each does have words or verses missing. The copyists were average individuals who were not so good at copying. So with missing words or verses, what else is there to do but honor it, or risk violating the Biblical directive not to deliberately add or take away from the text.

Footnotes are also used to provide a literal word or meaning that is different and often better than the word that stands in the actual text. So with that goldmine, I think that putting the verse there that's missing in the actual text is also a lovely goldmine.

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1 hour ago, Joulre2abba said:

Footnotes are also used to provide a literal word or meaning that is different and often better than the word that stands in the actual text. So with that goldmine, I think that putting the verse there that's missing in the actual text is also a lovely goldmine.

 

Yes, that is DIFFERENT than the actual text.

 

"shrine prostitute" instead of "sodomite".

 

COMPLETELY different meaning.

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1 minute ago, KiwiChristian said:

 

Yes, that is DIFFERENT than the actual text.

 

"shrine prostitute" instead of "sodomite".

 

COMPLETELY different meaning.

A sodomite refers to same gender sex.. what makes it different to be called a shrine prostitute?

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1 minute ago, Joulre2abba said:

A sodomite refers to same gender sex.. what makes it different to be called a shrine prostitute?

You honestly don't see?

 

Do you think homosexuals are prostitutes?

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