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Posted

Was Moses a Jew?

I dont understand the language of the bible. For example: 

And the passover, a feast of the Jews, was nigh.
Why the Jews?
Is it not the passover of the Israelites? Is there a Jewish passover or religion or covenant? Or is it the Mosaic covenant of Israel? 
 
Why marginalize 11 tribes of Israel for the sake of one tribe?
Moses was a Levite not a Jew same for John the Baptist!

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Posted

There are twelve tribes in the nation of Israel.  One of those tribes was Judah, that is the tribe from which we get the term "Jew".  Since Moses was of the tribe of Levi he was not a Jew, he was a Levite.


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Posted

So why call them Jews instead of Israelites?


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Posted

Why, indeed.


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Posted
On 8/7/2020 at 4:57 PM, Markesmith said:

Was Moses a Jew?

I dont understand the language of the bible. For example: 

And the passover, a feast of the Jews, was nigh.
Why the Jews?
Is it not the passover of the Israelites? Is there a Jewish passover or religion or covenant? Or is it the Mosaic covenant of Israel? 
 
Why marginalize 11 tribes of Israel for the sake of one tribe?
Moses was a Levite not a Jew same for John the Baptist!

The term "Jews" came to be used for people from any of the 12 tribes, not only those from Judah.

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Posted
13 hours ago, Josheb said:

Yep, but it's worth noting the term isn't used in an overgeneralized manner until the Babylonian occupation under Nebuchadnezzar and the subsequent rise of Ezra and Artaxerxes. Prior to that the common reference is "Hebrews" (more inclusive and accurate). 

Hebrews is a good, general term, because it refers to their language; but, since Judah means "praise" (c.f. Gen. 29:35), Jews would be people who praise God and, IMO, it's a very good replacement for "Hebrews".


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Posted
37 minutes ago, Josheb said:

Hebrews is the term the Bible uses. I suspect it is used to clarify the Abrahamic bloodline from other Semitic ones. It is first applied to Abraham in Gen. 14 and then again to Joseph when he is enslaved to Egypt. After that it becomes common. The term "Jew" is used two-and-a-half as many times as "Hebrew" in the OT and five times as often in the NT, but it doesn't arise until Ezra and 70% of its OT mentions are found in Esther! It appears to be a term applied in bondage and used to separate the Hebrew ;) slaves from those enslaving them. I use "Hebrew" any time I am talking about anyone between Abraham and the Sinai Law. 

I don't have a problem with any of this, since "Hebrews" and "Jews" are both valid terms.


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Posted

The term "Jews" came to be used for people from any of the 12 tribes, not only those from Judah.
 

why? I would be offended myself? For example if I was an american, from New York, and you called me a Texan I would be offended! 
 

Jews would be people who praise God? Really? 
Jesus said:

Ye are of your father the devil, and thelusts of your father ye will do. 

Matt 23:28 Even so ye also outwardly appear righteous unto men, but within ye are full of hypocrisy and iniquity.
 
Matt 23:39 For I say unto you, Ye shall not see me henceforth, till ye shall say, Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord.
 

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Posted (edited)
On 8/7/2020 at 10:57 AM, Markesmith said:

Was Moses a Jew?

I dont understand the language of the bible. For example: 

And the passover, a feast of the Jews, was nigh.
Why the Jews?
Is it not the passover of the Israelites? Is there a Jewish passover or religion or covenant? Or is it the Mosaic covenant of Israel? 
 
Why marginalize 11 tribes of Israel for the sake of one tribe?
Moses was a Levite not a Jew same for John the Baptist!

No...Moses is from the tribe of Levi.  In the technical since he was not a Jew but he was an Israelite from the tribe of Levi.  Most of the Levites did join the Kingdom of Judah after Israel split into two kingdoms.  Most of those who joined the southern Kingdom of Judah (Judah, Benjamin, Levites) became known as Jews.  Its the same for Paul.  He was from the tribe of Benjamin but considered himself a Jew.

Edited by Jedi4Yahweh

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Posted

Thanks

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