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Christ the KingPriest. How is Jesus ruling in our time?


Marilyn C

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Guest kingdombrat
26 minutes ago, Your closest friendnt said:

The works of his hands has the meaning and it comes with the strong emphasis that he is the Creator and no one else that he has made all those things .

Now we know that when Jesus was born all those things were created by still they give him credit for all the creation and the creation of man because it was the Word which at the right time was the Lord God of Abraham and David and the Father of the Israelites only.

And under him while under the Law David called his Lord God the Christ and he show him in a body like himself, "his body won't see coruption". 

And Jesus said: why you call the Christ the son of David when David called his Lord the Christ ".

The Word Created all things and it was the time that he revealed himself to Abraham to make him the Patriarch of his people and he made himself known as the Lord God and God Almighty. 

He was the God of Abraham and his descendants only by the Covenant of the Circumcision and Later the Law of God or Moses.

And the Tabernacle of God among his people in Jesus Christ. 

The Word, their Lord God became flesh and live amongst them and they crucified the Lord their God in the flesh born in Bethlehem. 

They Crucified and put to death the enforcer of their Covenant this is the end of their Covenant. 

Their Lord who died for the whole world is now free from them and the Covenant he had made with them before he was born in Bethlehem. 

Now he is free and at his death on the Cross he was free to be the God of all Nations in the world from the very beginning from the first man to died Abel to forever. 

In Isaiah 9:6,7.

He is described as the child to be born as THE EVERLASTING FATHER, This was written with the knowledge that the Father of the Israelites their Lord God will stop at some time to be their Father as he said in Isaiah 9:4, the Life Giver will be the EVERLASTING FATHER. 

 

Brother, God Bless You!

But we both know there is [nowhere] from Genesis to Revelation that ever shows a physical description, nor any actions performed by the Father anywhere.   So, we just cannot assign Him something because it messes with our own personal Doctrine.   Each description in that Verse can be found in relationship [only] to the WORD.   If anything, it proves what we have always known, the Ancient Hebrews were Monotheist.   Even when Jesus came, they immediately denied Him because He would be more than One, and not according to their Monotheistic beliefs.

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2 hours ago, kingdombrat said:

I am the least one who is going to jump to that conclusion.   But I will add, [WE] know nothing about the Father.   There is no description and no definition other than Christ spoke about the Father.   The Bible Verse I picked of yours describes God using His hands to Create.   That would not be the Father because we know it was the WORD in Genesis 1 doing the Creating according to Paul in Colossians Chapter one.   And then Your Verse claims that Someone was placed over the things Created [which is the WORD made Flesh].

 

But the real kicker here, in all descriptions of God pertaining to that Verse, they absolutely describe only One of the Three, the WORD!

 

I never really read this Verse from Psalms 6/Hebrews 2 before.   And I don't know why all of a [sudden] I saw what I did.   But those definitions only describe the WORD in Creation working with His hands, and Christ, Who is the WORD made flesh.   They [do not] describe the Father because THERE ARE NO DESCRIPTIONS OF THE FATHER ANYWHERE.

 

I am just baffled by this!

Hi kingdombrat,

I appreciate your honesty. So let`s look a bit closer together at God`s word for therein lies our answer. Which I believe you would agree.

So we know that there is no description of the Father, (as you so rightly said) other than that He is Spirit, (John 4: 23) and that His Son is His exact image. (Heb. 1: 3). So if we study Christ`s character then we know of the Father.

So to your scripture. In Ps. 8: 3 - 8 we realise that the Psalmist is talking about man and that God has given him dominion over creation. At the beginning of the Psalm we read of LORD (Father) and Lord, (Son). They through their different functions made creation. The Father initiated, the Son administered, and the Holy Spirit was the direct agency - moving over the waters, etc.

Then we go to Heb. 2: 6 - 8 and we realise that by the Holy Spirit the writer to the Hebrews had further revelation. And that was that Jesus Christ was manifest as a man, (thus had dominion) but is actually God`s Son and now seated at the Father`s right hand. (Heb. 1: 3)

Hebrews is all about revealing the Jesus Christ is far superior to angels, (Heb. 1: 5 - 13, to man, (Heb. 3: 3) to the Sabbath rest, (Heb. 4), to priests on earth, (Heb. 7) etc.

So...you would agree with that.

However it is `God`s hand` part that is troubling you.

`...and set him over the works of YOUR HANDS.` (Heb. 2: 7)

 

So let`s go to Psalm 118:15 & 16.

`The right hand of the LORD (Father) does valiantly. The right hand of the LORD (Father) is exalted..` (Ps. 118: 15 & 16) 

The LORD is the Father and the `right hand` is the Lord, God`s Son who was with Him in the Godhead. The Son does the administration of what the Father desires. Thus the Son, God`s hand was part of the creating of creation.

The `hand` means what you use to do the work. Thus in the Old testament we read often of the `hand of the LORD,` doing such and such. It is the Lord, the Son whom it is talking about.

The writers of the Old Testament were not given the full revelation of God`s Son but by the Holy Spirit were shown some foretelling of Him.

 

Hope that helps. Sorry so long. Marilyn.    

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4 minutes ago, kingdombrat said:

Brother, God Bless You!

But we both know there is [nowhere] from Genesis to Revelation that ever shows a physical description, nor any actions performed by the Father anywhere.   So, we just cannot assign Him something because it messes with our own personal Doctrine.   Each description in that Verse can be found in relationship [only] to the WORD.   If anything, it proves what we have always known, the Ancient Hebrews were Monotheist.   Even when Jesus came, they immediately denied Him because He would be more than One, and not according to their Monotheistic beliefs.

I did not understand what you want to say with this post as it is not clear not clear at all and this is that you used the word "Father " and I think you are giving it another definition that you have given within the context of your scripture posting. 

This is something to think about.

Why Jesus never called upon the "Lord God", the God Almighty and he only called upon his Heavenly Father who was not the Father of the Jews and not the Father of the Israelites and Abraham and Moses. 

And why? He did not teach the disciples to do the same, and that's what they did, the same Like Jesus and the same like Paul.  

Jesus Christ came to reveal to us the Heavenly Father, the Israelites did not have the Heavenly Father. 

The Father of the Israelites the Lord God of David and by DEFAULT of Abraham was not and it is not the Heavenly Father, never was the Heavenly Father. 

The Heavenly Father was known to the Word the Creator but not to anyone else, Jesus Christ made him known to us. 

The Heavenly Father did not have any children, the Lord God had the Israelites through Abraham their Patriarch. 

The Heavenly Father has only children through Jesus Christ the Author of Life 

Only children with the Life. 

When Jesus was baptized the Heavenly Father recognized only Jesus Christ as his Son not even John the Baptist and this is because only Jesus Christ had of his Life 

Where did he get the Life of the Heavenly Father? 

The Word became flesh and lived amongst his people. Was born in Bethlehem, enter our world through birth from Mary. 

 

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Guest kingdombrat
8 minutes ago, Marilyn C said:

Hi kingdombrat,

I appreciate your honesty. So let`s look a bit closer together at God`s word for therein lies our answer. Which I believe you would agree.

So we know that there is no description of the Father, (as you so rightly said) other than that He is Spirit, (John 4: 23) and that His Son is His exact image. (Heb. 1: 3). So if we study Christ`s character then we know of the Father.

So to your scripture. In Ps. 8: 3 - 8 we realise that the Psalmist is talking about man and that God has given him dominion over creation. At the beginning of the Psalm we read of LORD (Father) and Lord, (Son). They through their different functions made creation. The Father initiated, the Son administered, and the Holy Spirit was the direct agency - moving over the waters, etc.

Then we go to Heb. 2: 6 - 8 and we realise that by the Holy Spirit the writer to the Hebrews had further revelation. And that was that Jesus Christ was manifest as a man, (thus had dominion) but is actually God`s Son and now seated at the Father`s right hand. (Heb. 1: 3)

Hebrews is all about revealing the Jesus Christ is far superior to angels, (Heb. 1: 5 - 13, to man, (Heb. 3: 3) to the Sabbath rest, (Heb. 4), to priests on earth, (Heb. 7) etc.

So...you would agree with that.

However it is `God`s hand` part that is troubling you.

`...and set him over the works of YOUR HANDS.` (Heb. 2: 7)

 

So let`s go to Psalm 118:15 & 16.

`The right hand of the LORD (Father) does valiantly. The right hand of the LORD (Father) is exalted..` (Ps. 118: 15 & 16) 

The LORD is the Father and the `right hand` is the Lord, God`s Son who was with Him in the Godhead. The Son does the administration of what the Father desires. Thus the Son, God`s hand was part of the creating of creation.

The `hand` means what you use to do the work. Thus in the Old testament we read often of the `hand of the LORD,` doing such and such. It is the Lord, the Son whom it is talking about.

The writers of the Old Testament were not given the full revelation of God`s Son but by the Holy Spirit were shown some foretelling of Him.

 

Hope that helps. Sorry so long. Marilyn.    

I absolutely Agree!

I always have.

The Scripture references you provided from your opening post just caught me by surprise.   The more I thought about Who was being credited for what, and Who was being assigned to overseeing it, the descriptions given equal the same Person from Biblical Descriptions.

It caught me by surprise I just wanted to see if anyone else caught it.

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Guest kingdombrat
8 minutes ago, Your closest friendnt said:

I did not understand what you want to say with this post as it is not clear not clear at all and this is that you used the word "Father " and I think you are giving it another definition that you have given within the context of your scripture posting. 

This is something to think about.

Why Jesus never called upon the "Lord God", the God Almighty and he only called upon his Heavenly Father who was not the Father of the Jews and not the Father of the Israelites and Abraham and Moses. 

And why? He did not teach the disciples to do the same, and that's what they did, the same Like Jesus and the same like Paul.  

Jesus Christ came to reveal to us the Heavenly Father, the Israelites did not have the Heavenly Father. 

The Father of the Israelites the Lord God of David and by DEFAULT of Abraham was not and it is not the Heavenly Father, never was the Heavenly Father. 

The Heavenly Father was known to the Word the Creator but not to anyone else, Jesus Christ made him known to us. 

The Heavenly Father did not have any children, the Lord God had the Israelites through Abraham their Patriarch. 

The Heavenly Father has only children through Jesus Christ the Author of Life 

Only children with the Life. 

When Jesus was baptized the Heavenly Father recognized only Jesus Christ as his Son not even John the Baptist and this is because only Jesus Christ had of his Life 

Where did he get the Life of the Heavenly Father? 

The Word became flesh and lived amongst his people. Was born in Bethlehem, enter our world through birth from Mary. 

 

Have you ever looked closely to Sodom and G story.  It literally states in the Ancient Hebrew Text, the LORD from Earth [we know God in human form] who sat/ate with Abraham and told him Sarah would have a son] sent fire upon Sodom from the LORD in Heaven.   And the Ancient Hebrews called this Omnipotence [being the same LORD able to be in 2 places at one time].

 

I think David would see it the same way and this is how we get this Verse.

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Guest kingdombrat
14 minutes ago, kingdombrat said:

Have you ever looked closely to Sodom and G story.  It literally states in the Ancient Hebrew Text, the LORD from Earth [we know God in human form] who sat/ate with Abraham and told him Sarah would have a son] sent fire upon Sodom from the LORD in Heaven.   And the Ancient Hebrews called this Omnipotence [being the same LORD able to be in 2 places at one time].

 

I think David would see it the same way and this is how we get this Verse.

         From the KJV: 

        Genesis 19:24 
Then the LORD rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the LORD out of heaven;
 
 
From the Hebrew:
24And the LORD caused to rain down upon Sodom and Gomorrah brimstone and fire, from the LORD, from heaven.   כדוַֽיהֹוָ֗ה הִמְטִ֧יר עַל־סְדֹ֛ם וְעַל־עֲמֹרָ֖ה גָּפְרִ֣ית וָאֵ֑שׁ מֵאֵ֥ת יְהֹוָ֖ה מִן־הַשָּׁמָֽיִם:
 
You can see the usage of the same Character for LORD used twice meaning same LORD [יְהֹוָ֖ה]     
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16 hours ago, Josheb said:

Satan is the father of lies. He offered, "...all these things I will give thee," but THEY WERE NOT HIS TO GIVE!!! He was lying! Lying is what the liar does. He cannot not lie; it is an inherent part of his constitution. It is an inferential ASSUMPTION he had any authority to give to the one by whom, through whom and for whom EVERYTHING was created. Satan is a creature. Satan is a created creature. Satan is a created creature created by Christ, through Christ, for Christ and the creature has never had authority over the Creator. 

Who said anything with the remotest connection to what you wrote above? 

No one. 

There is ample evidence Satan is in control and has authority in the realm of mankind both from scripture and by observation. Deny it if you wish.

16 hours ago, Josheb said:

Satan being god of the world is rhetorical. There is only one God. Satan being god of the world is inescapably contextual. The "god of the world" is not, never has been, and cannot be god over God. Such a view is completely irrational; a failure to understand the nature of God and logically necessary consequence of God's existence. 

Well the god of a realm isn't a supreme God now is it? 

16 hours ago, Josheb said:

Do you need me to walk you through that? I will gladly go mention by mention to help you understand the presuppositional reality and meaning of every single mention of the creature we now call "satan," or the "adversary" if you like. Look at the verse you just cited. Who has he blinded? Non-believers. Who or what are non-believers? Do you understand the answers to these questions, their actual meaning and significance in light of whole scripture? In contrast to the adopted sons and daughters of God who together will not be prevailed upon?

Why is it the simplest of statements and truths have light years between the reading and comprehension? I get you don't like it but pleasing answers are not my obligation.

 

16 hours ago, Josheb said:

Happy to walk with you through it; verse by verse if necessary. The whole Bible from beginning to end if it takes that long. Just ask. But don't ask absent genuine interest, sincere consideration, the possibility of a changed pov, ignoring what I post, or asking me already answered questions, and off-topic snide poster-impugning comments about moral high grounds. 

I have a partner for that task and it's been ongoing for some time and continues even now. 

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17 hours ago, kingdombrat said:

Is this portion: 

`…You (God the Father) crowned Him (Jesus) with glory and honour, and set Him over the works of your hands. You have put all things in subjection under His feet.

a Verse?

 

Talk about written in a [oneness] View.

 

We know it was the WORD who did the Creating in Creation, and speaks of working with His Own hands.

We know the WORD became flesh and was known as Yeshua.

 

That means the WORD is both Creator and Christ.

 

But this Verse/Statement: 

`…You (God the Father) crowned Him (Jesus) with glory and honour, and set Him over the works of your hands. You have put all things in subjection under His feet.

is claiming the Father is basically the WORD [Creator with His Own Hands] and then sat Christ [Who is the WORD become flesh] over the Creation and put all things subjection under His feet.

 

Is that actually a bonafide translated Verse?

Maybe someone answered this already but there is an interesting passage in the OT related:

"

For unto us a child is born,

unto us a son is given,

and the government will be upon His shoulders.

And He will be called

Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,

Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

7Of the increase of His government and peace

there will be no end.

He will reign on the throne of David

and over his kingdom,

to establish and sustain it

with justice and righteousness

from that time and forevermore.

"

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10 minutes ago, Diaste said:

Maybe someone answered this already but there is an interesting passage in the OT related:

"

For unto us a child is born,

unto us a son is given,

and the government will be upon His shoulders.

And He will be called

Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,

Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

7Of the increase of His government and peace

there will be no end.

He will reign on the throne of David

and over his kingdom,

to establish and sustain it

with justice and righteousness

from that time and forevermore.

"

Its Isaiah 9:6,7

Amen. 

His name is Jesus. 

Jesus Christ. 

 

Edited by Your closest friendnt
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Guest clancy
On 5/7/2021 at 2:27 AM, Marilyn C said:

CHRIST THE KINGPRIEST. How is Jesus ruling in our time?

This is thread is following on from a discussion to do with the Millennium. So as to not take that thread off topic I am starting this one on the authority of Christ as Kingpriest.

We know that God the Father made Jesus Christ a priest forever after the order of Melchizedek.

`…behind the veil, where the forerunner has entered for us, even Jesus,  having become high priest for ever according to the order of Melchizedek.` (Heb. 6: 20)

This order is both priest and king.

`For this Melchizedek, king of Salem, priest of the most high God,….`(Heb. 7: 1)

                      

So the discussion is how Jesus Christ is ruling in our time?

Let`s look at what God`s word says.

`(God the Father) raised Him (Jesus) from the dead and seated Him at His right hand in the heavenly places far above all principality and power and might and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this age but in the one to come.

And He (God the Father) put all things under His feet, and gave Him to be Head over all things to the Church which is His Body, the fullness of Him who fills all in all.` (Eph. 1: 20 - 23)

Here we read that Jesus is at the Father`s right hand, with all authority and power now and on into eternity.

 

So we ask ourselves, “Why do we not see all rebellion dealt with how?”

`…You (God the Father) crowned Him (Jesus) with glory and honour, and set Him over the works of your hands. You have put all things in subjection under His feet.

For in that He (Father) put all in subjection under Him, (Jesus) He left nothing that is not put under Him. But now we do not yet see all things put under Him.` (Heb. 2: 7 & 8)

So why do we not yet see all things put under Jesus` rule and authority?

`For He (Jesus) must reign till He has put all enemies under His feet. The last enemy that will be destroyed is death.` (1 Cor. 15: 25 & 26)

So we read that it is a process of the outworking of Jesus` victory over His enemies.

 

Jesus is doing the will of the Father through us, His children, He leads us in God’s will for our lives,  we submit to His leadership and Holy Spirit..just my thoughts on the subject..

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