What does it mean Mat 15:26? (Part 1)

[Leonardo Von]

What does it mean Mat 15:26? (Part 1)

•    Mat 15:26 -> “Who answering, said: It is not good to take the bread of the children, and to cast it to the dogs.”. 

Why Jesus said this to the woman?

To figure out this, we need to analyze the other verses of the Holy Scripture.

•    Mat 15:21 -> “And Jesus went away from there and withdrew to the district of Tyre and Sidon.”.
•    Mar 7:24 -> “And from there he arose and went away to the region of Tyre and Sidon. And he entered a house and did not want anyone to know, yet he could not be hidden.”.

After the conflict with the Pharisees, Jesus desired to depart from the Galilee to Tyre and Sidon. Considering that He didn’t want anyone to know, certainly He longed for having intimacy with His disciples.

But He couldn’t hide because a woman cried for her daughter:

•    Mat 15:22 -> “And behold, a Canaanite woman from that region came out and was crying, “Have mercy on me, O Lord, Son of David; my daughter is severely oppressed by a demon.”.
•    Mar 7:26 -> “Now the woman was a Gentile, a Syrophoenician by birth. And she begged him to cast the demon out of her daughter.”.

This woman was born in a region that belonged to Syria and Phoenicia (gentile, that is to say, heathen), which were part of the Canaan that wasn’t conquered by the sons of Israel (in particular, by Asher). 

Matthew, writing specially to the Israelites, made a point of emphasizing that the woman belonged to the strangers that were neighbors to the Israelites, being a shame for them who didn’t believe (even more considering that Canaan was the region which people were cursed by the Creator for their heinous cult to cruel gods).

This woman cry “O Lord, Son of David”. Probably, this woman cried like this because many people were blessed when they called Jesus like this:

•    Mat 9:27 -> “And as Jesus passed on from there, two blind men followed him, crying aloud, “Have mercy on us, Son of David.”.

This expression was used by Israelites to make reference to the Messiah:

•    Mat 12:23 -> “And all the people were amazed, and said, “Can this be the Son of David?””.

So, how could this woman refer to Jesus as Messiah if, at first, He came to the Israelites? 

Tomorrow we will continue. Have a good day.
 

[Markie51]

John the Baptizer’s responsibility was to attempt to turned many of the Israelites back to pure worship toward God. (Luke 1:16; John  1:31)  Then Jesus and his apostles followed up in this work, toward “the lost sheep of the house of Israel,” by opening blind eyes to the false traditions of men. (Matthew 15:24; 10:6)  Yet, only a remnant accepted Jesus as Messiah and were saved.-Roman 9:27; 11:7.

      Secondly, to the Jewish nation, non Jewish people of the “nations” were likened to dogs of which were considered unclean animals.  However, in likening the gentiles to “little dogs”-which might be kept in a home, and not to wild dogs of the street-Jesus softened the comparison.  Nevertheless, what Jesus said was likely to test the woman‘s faith.  Rather than taking offense, the woman humbly and correctly interprets Jesus’ reference to Jewish prejudices and continues her plea.