Why did Man give the Creator the name

[Snowdoove]

Blessings & Greetings~

What would you say, if I told you the word GOD is a title which at times applies to idols that are worshiped!

In Isaiah 52:6 "Therefore my people shall know my name...".

The Scared name of The Creator is Yahweh.

The Jewish people know the Creator as Yahweh.

Do you actually believe that the Creator would choose the word GOD, knowing others apply it to idols that are worshipped.

I don't believe He would.

Besides, aren't we drafted in with the Jews?

Snowdoove :t: :t: :t:

[Snowdoove]

Oops!

I made a mistake the word drafted should read grafted.

Snowdoove :t: :sleep: :t:

[Dad Ernie]

Greetings,

The following is from Adam Clark's Commentary: (I regret the Hebrew letters do not copy to this forum)

Gen 1:1 -

God in the beginning created the heavens and the earth -

[Snowdoove]

Dad Ernie~

Thank you for adding to this topic.

I am sure someone will gain from it.

Maybe because it is so simple many are missing it.

The letters GOD or god are at times applied to idols which are worshipped.

Plus these letters GOD spelled backwards is dog.

Isn't there a commandment that states, We shall no other GODs, except Yahweh.

How can this word be associated with worshipping idols and honouring Yahweh - G-D at the same time?

Many men translated the original Bible from the time Yahweh issued His words to Moses!

Snowdoove :il: :il: :il:

[nebula]

OK, I'm not following your train of thought here. . . .

"Now" spelled backwards is "won." "Tar" spelled backwards is "rat." "Chocolate" spelled backwards is "etalocohc." . . . What does the backwards spelling of a word have anything to do with it's meaning? . . . "Jim" spelled backwards is "mij." "David" spelled backwards is "divad." :c:

But, yes, the word "god' is applied to idols. But that's what I was talking about "god" being a title. The way I see it, someone worshipped Yahweh with, "You are my god!" and "You are the god above all gods." But because He was so great, someone with some language that uses capital letters preferred to say, "You are my God!" and "You are the God above all gods." And from there, someone prayed, "My God, . . ." and from there someone adressed Him, "God, . . ." just like some addressed Him, "Lord, . . . ."

That's the way I see it anyway.

[The Journey]

Snowdooove,

Yes to your question about drafting....I mean grafting...

Ok, those were all covenant names from God to His people the Jews.

So riddle me this....

Why did the Holy Spirit choose Theos to denote God and not any of the Hebrew titles?. I have yet to see anyone on this Board post Th--s but it would be much more true than G-d.

Maybe it had to do with titles and the intended audience. Just a thought.

- Steve

[His son]

Yes the old testament was inspired by The Holy Spirit and written in Hebrew for Hebrews, and then it was translated by the inspiration of The Holy Spirit into english for the english etc.. So regardless of what it means to the Hebrews, to us English He said that He is God.

His Son,

That is not true. The english is not an "inspired" translation. All the english versions were made by men using the established rules of translation. ALL the versions including the KJV. Some are better than others but all are fallible as they are the work of men. No translation is perfect.

That is why we must look at the original hebrew and greek that underlies our english versions. Any english translation is only as good as it accurately relays the underlying greek or hebrew text.

Steve

Are you then not calling God a liar? He is the one who wrote that He is no respecter of persons, and that He inspired all Scripture. If it were required for the English, Germans, French, Irish, or any other language group to study the Jewish or Greek then God would be a respecter of the Jews, and Greeks. If this were necessary would He have not told us that we must study those particular Scriptures? He tells us to meditate in His Scriptures which would be those He inspired. He created all languages, and I find it pretty hard to accept the fact that the one who created my language could not communicate directly to me in that language. There are no established rules of translation in The Bible, and that means that we don't need them. God has told us who is to interpret His Truth to us, and it is definitely not men. He sent us The Holy spirit, and He told us that men will not longer teach each other. Your stand on this issue says that God did not mean any of these things.

[Snowdoove]

Greetings ~

re: Why did man give the creator the name G-D. (GOD)

By now you should know how many people take the name (GOD) invain.

G-D's name is taken invain in movies over and over again.

Parents say this name invain and their children pick it up.

We wonder why every generation seems to be the same.

Well, I visited this web site, www.halleluyah.org/TheCreator.htm.

I want everyone to know, The Signature of the Creator is YAHWEH

A key verse is Isaiah 52:6 ~ "therefore my people shall know my name...".

Do you think that there is power in the title G-D(GOD),

or in His Signature YAHWEH?

Snowdoove :t: :t: :t:

[The Journey]

Are you then not calling God a liar? He is the one who wrote that He is no respecter of persons, and that He inspired all Scripture. If it were required for the English, Germans, French, Irish, or any other language group to study the Jewish or Greek then God would be a respecter of the Jews, and Greeks. If this were necessary would He have not told us that we must study those particular Scriptures? He tells us to meditate in His Scriptures which would be those He inspired. He created all languages, and I find it pretty hard to accept the fact that the one who created my language could not communicate directly to me in that language. There are no established rules of translation in The Bible, and that means that we don't need them. God has told us who is to interpret His Truth to us, and it is definitely not men. He sent us The Holy spirit, and He told us that men will not longer teach each other. Your stand on this issue says that God did not mean any of these things.

Gods Son,

Respectfully, brother, your post makes no sense. And you do not understand what the Bible means when it says that "God is no respecter of persons." That verse such as Acts 10:33,34 means that in the Church age God accepts all to salvation. Salvation is no longer just for the Jews. You do not have to convert to Judaism and be circumcised and follow the Mosiaic Law. That verse has nothing to do with how the original Scriptures were written.

So if God inspired an English translation, which one did he inspire? Does this inspired translation correct the Greek and Hebrew texts?

- Steve

[nebula]

So, Snowdoove -

I take it you are actually trying to make a point with your original question, correct? This point being we should stop calling God "God" but rather start calling Him by YHWH?

Is this correct?