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Posted

I could be wrong on this, but I was reading in Jeremiah today and found something extremely interesting. I want to take it verse by verse. Of course, if anyone can show historical evidence that proves me wrong, or if I have my timelines off (which I most likely do), then cool, this theory is shot to the ground. Still, I found this interesting:

Jeremiah 30:3 - 'For, behold, days are comming,' declares the LORD, 'when I will restore the fortunes of My people Israel and Judah.' The LORD says, 'I will also bring them back to the land that I gave to their forefathers, and they shall possess it.'

Here is what is interesting about this. At the time Jeremiah wrote this Judah was beginning to undergo hard times and I believe Israel was under captivity. What is interesting is that God promises that both Israel and Judah will have their lands restored. The thing is, for Israel, this did not occur until 1948 when the Jews came back to Israel. In other words, my theory is that this prophecy wasn't fufilled until 1948...I could be wrong. So why is this important?

Jeremiah 30:5-7 - "For thus says the LORD, 'I have heard a sound of terror, of dread, and there is no peace. Ask now, and see, if a male can give birth. Why do I see every man with his hands on his loins, as a woman in childbirth? And why have all faced turned pale? Alas! For that day is great, there is none like it; and it is the time of Jacob's distress, but he will be saved from it.'

In verse 5 we learn of how there is a sound of terror and there is no peace. Obviously during the holocaust there was no peace...yet what gets my attention is verses 6 and 7. These describe exactly what a person starving and under intense fear would go through. They keep their hands on their loins, they go through "birthing pains", and they are pale. This is almost a picture perfect description of what a typical Jew would look like in a concentration camp. Yet, as verse 7 promises, they were saved from it. It gets more interesting in Jeremiah 30:8 we see that the land they are brought out of is "the north country". At the same time the remenant (vs 7) is being brought from the north country, they're also being gathered from the remote parts of the earth. All of this happened in 1948. I really encourage all of you to read these chapters and tell me what you think. To me, it sounds like God prophecied the Holocaust all the way back in Jeremiah...then again, I could be wrong.


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Posted

I beleive that it was prophesied and I beleive that the vision of dry bones of Ezekiel was that of the nation of Israel being rebirthed after the holocaust.


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Posted

bumping this because i'm looking for some answers/discussion.

  • 1 month later...
Guest hubertdorm
Posted

I'm not sure if that passage is in reference to the Holocaust, but I wouldn't be suprised if it was.

Revelation 8:8-9 The second angel sounded his trumpet, and something like a huge mountain, all ablaze, was thrown into the sea. A third of the sea turned into blood, a third of the living creatures in the sea died, and a third of the ships were destroyed.

The likeness of this event with WW2 is astonishing.


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Posted

No, your just alittle of Super, its ok i thought that too when i read throught this chapture, and i didn't know it was talking about the trib untill some one pointed out the word Jacob's distress meaning the Tribulation. Alas! For that day is great, there is none like it; and it is the time of Jacob's distress, but he will be saved from it.'

Jeremiah 30:3,7 Note that the context of these verses is prophecy of future restoration for Israel.

Jer 30:7 "will be saved" = Da12:1 "will be rescued" = Zech13:8-9 "I will bring the 3rd part through the fire" = Ro11:26 "all Israel will be saved"

3"For, behold, days are coming,' declares the LORD, 'when I will restore the fortunes of My people Israel and Judah

7 'Alas! for that day is great (What day? the "great tribulation"). There is none like it; and it is the time of Jacob's distress, but he will be saved from it."

Daniel 12:1 Daniel's "Time of Distress" = Jesus' "Great Tribulation" = Jeremiah's "Time of Jacob's Distress"

"Now at that time (context read previous chapter, especially beginning in Da11:36, which describes the reign of the antichrist), Michael, the great prince who stands guard over the sons of your people, will arise. And there will be a time of distress such as never occurred since there was a nation until that time; and at that time your people, everyone who is found written in the book, will be rescued."


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Posted

To make the claim that the Revelation passage refers to WW II would be to change Revelation to mean that the tribulation happened already. I dont think it fits.

Guest hubertdorm
Posted

I understand that theory Jade, that all of Rev. 4-18 all occurs during the tribulation. The biblical support for a seven-year tribulation is slim. The support that all of Rev.4-19 occurs during this seven-year period is even slimer. Instead, as Trinity excellently pointed out, the time of Jacob's trouble/tribulation is one of three and one half years. But, I wouldn't suggest that all of Rev 4-18 occurs in this period either.

I'm haven't changed anthing.

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