"Effeminate" men and the meaning of Malakos

[BlessedByTheBest]

some questions for you all.

so is there a difference at all between being an effeminate male and being a homosexual?

is sexual tendency towards the same sex as much a sin as the act of sodomy?

i ask because it is a touchy subject for me, as i minister to about 3 young openly male homosexuals in my weekly bible study.

one has stepped forward to me in private seeking deliverance from his desires.

[Guest Butero]

some questions for you all.

so is there a difference at all between being an effeminate male and being a homosexual?

is sexual tendency towards the same sex as much a sin as the act of sodomy?

i ask because it is a touchy subject for me, as i minister to about 3 young openly male homosexuals in my weekly bible study.

one has stepped forward to me in private seeking deliverance from his desires.

They are two separate sins. If the person wants to be delivered from homosexuality, God is big enough to help him. If the person wants to be delivered from being effeminate, God is big enough to help him. If it was me counseling him, I would start by trying to help him move away from acts of sodomy, and then move on to the issue of being effeminate, but both must be addressed.

[BlessedByTheBest]

Thanks Butero.

[back2thebible]

some questions for you all.

so is there a difference at all between being an effeminate male and being a homosexual?

is sexual tendency towards the same sex as much a sin as the act of sodomy?

i ask because it is a touchy subject for me, as i minister to about 3 young openly male homosexuals in my weekly bible study.

one has stepped forward to me in private seeking deliverance from his desires.

They are two separate sins. If the person wants to be delivered from homosexuality, God is big enough to help him. If the person wants to be delivered from being effeminate, God is big enough to help him. If it was me counseling him, I would start by trying to help him move away from acts of sodomy, and then move on to the issue of being effeminate, but both must be addressed.

all sin starts as a thought, I would encourage anyone caught in sexual sin, that controling ones thoughts is where the freedom in Christ is, give your thought life to Jesus and the sins that the flesh tempts you with have no power to make you bend to them

[Guest]

.... i minister to about 3 young....

Praying~!

[revolutionist90]

This research is kind of old but it explains that homosexuals have similar brain patterns and structures as the opposite sex so gay men are actually effeminate so I guess the attempt to redefine the term malakos to support homosexuality still didn't really work in the end. Actually since homosexuals only make up about 3-4% of the U.S population and through research do have odd characteristics either neurobiology or structurally I wonder if homosexuality could be in lines with a mutation since some research has shown that homosexuals have unnatural brain or personality structures. I don't think there is a "gene" but instead a mutation of many genes especially since some research shows there are consistent neurological changes within homosexuals...just my two cents. Here is the link to the article:

 

http://news.nationalgeographic.com/news/2008/06/080616-gay-brain.html

[Guest Butero]

So I was reading this article from christian post:

http://www.christianpost.com/news/theologians-find-vines-homosexuality-is-not-a-sin-thesis-not-persuasive-82341/pageall.html

Where it is stated that the verse in 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 was incorrectly translated. The term for homosexuals malakos actually means "soft" or "effeminate" men. Many newer versions of different bible translations have re-translated the verse to say male prostitutes instead of homosexuals. Many believe that the malakos term is for feminine acting or submissive men and does not include homosexuals at all but doesn't that still include gay men who might act a certain way to attract other gay men? Like male prostitutes would act a certain way to attract other "clients". I think the term is for homosexuals and men who act a certain to attract other same-sex partners. But what do you think about this new translation and what do you think Paul was meaning by "effeminate" men? Or do you think this whole business is just a hoax or a trick by the world?

========================================================================================================

 

The word translated to effeminate would apply to homosexuals, but you don't have to be a homosexual to be effeminate.  It simply means a man that takes on the characteristics of a woman, in dress and manerisms.  The new translations, and many Bible teachers, have watered this down to make it only apply to male prositutes or homosexuals. 

[revolutionist90]

 

So I was reading this article from christian post:

http://www.christianpost.com/news/theologians-find-vines-homosexuality-is-not-a-sin-thesis-not-persuasive-82341/pageall.html

Where it is stated that the verse in 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 was incorrectly translated. The term for homosexuals malakos actually means "soft" or "effeminate" men. Many newer versions of different bible translations have re-translated the verse to say male prostitutes instead of homosexuals. Many believe that the malakos term is for feminine acting or submissive men and does not include homosexuals at all but doesn't that still include gay men who might act a certain way to attract other gay men? Like male prostitutes would act a certain way to attract other "clients". I think the term is for homosexuals and men who act a certain to attract other same-sex partners. But what do you think about this new translation and what do you think Paul was meaning by "effeminate" men? Or do you think this whole business is just a hoax or a trick by the world?

========================================================================================================

 

The word translated to effeminate would apply to homosexuals, but you don't have to be a homosexual to be effeminate.  It simply means a man that takes on the characteristics of a woman, in dress and manerisms.  The new translations, and many Bible teachers, have watered this down to make it only apply to male prositutes or homosexuals. 

 

 

I agree. I was just saying that if homosexuals have similar brains to heterosexual women they could naturally be effeminate.

[Guest Butero]

 

 

So I was reading this article from christian post:

http://www.christianpost.com/news/theologians-find-vines-homosexuality-is-not-a-sin-thesis-not-persuasive-82341/pageall.html

Where it is stated that the verse in 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 was incorrectly translated. The term for homosexuals malakos actually means "soft" or "effeminate" men. Many newer versions of different bible translations have re-translated the verse to say male prostitutes instead of homosexuals. Many believe that the malakos term is for feminine acting or submissive men and does not include homosexuals at all but doesn't that still include gay men who might act a certain way to attract other gay men? Like male prostitutes would act a certain way to attract other "clients". I think the term is for homosexuals and men who act a certain to attract other same-sex partners. But what do you think about this new translation and what do you think Paul was meaning by "effeminate" men? Or do you think this whole business is just a hoax or a trick by the world?

========================================================================================================

 

The word translated to effeminate would apply to homosexuals, but you don't have to be a homosexual to be effeminate.  It simply means a man that takes on the characteristics of a woman, in dress and manerisms.  The new translations, and many Bible teachers, have watered this down to make it only apply to male prositutes or homosexuals. 

 

 

I agree. I was just saying that if homosexuals have similar brains to heterosexual women they could naturally be effeminate.

 

========================================================================================================

 

That is an interesting possibility.  There have been some that have been looking for a "gay gene?"  The idea they have brain patterns of the opposite sex could certainly explain things? 

[revolutionist90]

 

 

 

So I was reading this article from christian post:

http://www.christianpost.com/news/theologians-find-vines-homosexuality-is-not-a-sin-thesis-not-persuasive-82341/pageall.html

Where it is stated that the verse in 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 was incorrectly translated. The term for homosexuals malakos actually means "soft" or "effeminate" men. Many newer versions of different bible translations have re-translated the verse to say male prostitutes instead of homosexuals. Many believe that the malakos term is for feminine acting or submissive men and does not include homosexuals at all but doesn't that still include gay men who might act a certain way to attract other gay men? Like male prostitutes would act a certain way to attract other "clients". I think the term is for homosexuals and men who act a certain to attract other same-sex partners. But what do you think about this new translation and what do you think Paul was meaning by "effeminate" men? Or do you think this whole business is just a hoax or a trick by the world?

========================================================================================================

 

The word translated to effeminate would apply to homosexuals, but you don't have to be a homosexual to be effeminate.  It simply means a man that takes on the characteristics of a woman, in dress and manerisms.  The new translations, and many Bible teachers, have watered this down to make it only apply to male prositutes or homosexuals. 

 

 

I agree. I was just saying that if homosexuals have similar brains to heterosexual women they could naturally be effeminate.

 

========================================================================================================

 

That is an interesting possibility.  There have been some that have been looking for a "gay gene?"  The idea they have brain patterns of the opposite sex could certainly explain things? 

 

I agree the study of brain patterns of the opposite sex could explain many things. I don't think there is a "gay gene" but I do believe there could be various smaller mutations that could lead to having homosexual urges but the choice to actually act on the urges and decide to become a homosexual is a result of society/environment IMO. It has been stated in research that there could be certain genes that when mutated lead to a higher chance of alcoholism or cravings but a person with said mutations do not have to become a drunk...same with homosexuals. Having the brain patterns of the opposite sex sounds like some type of mutation either with a primary mutation (prenatal or during development) or secondary mutation (environment/family upbringing) since it is unnatural to have brain patterns of the opposite sex.The fact that the gay population in the U.S is about 3-4% does fall in line with a possible mutation rather than something a person is truly born with like skin color or eye color which generally compromises larger populations IMO. Another thing is a gay gene would mean that they are born with it and that it is somehow embedded in all humans DNA and is just activated in some but since no such gene has been found it falls into the lines of a series of mutations which is normally under the guide lines of something unnatural or abnormal.