When was Gen 15:6 Fulfilled?

[bcbsr]

This may seem to be a simple question, but think about it first.

 

James says this is his letter:

 

Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar? (Referring to an event in Genesis 22) Do you see that faith was working together with his works, and by works faith was made perfect? And the Scripture was fulfilled which says, "Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness." (James quoting Genesis 15:6) And he was called the friend of God. You see then that a man is justified by works, and not by faith only.

 James 2:12-24

 

The first question is, when in Abraham's life did James reckon Gen 15:6 was fulfilled? 

 

The apostle Paul also quotes Gen 15:6 in Romans 4

 

What then shall we say that Abraham our father has found according to the flesh?  For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. For what does the Scripture say? "Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness." Now to him who works, the wages are not counted as grace but as debt. But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness, just as David also describes the blessedness of the man to whom God imputes righteousness apart from works.

Rom 4:1-6

 

The second question is, when in Abraham's life did Paul reckon Gen 15:6 was fulfilled? 

 

[Guest shiloh357]

It's not either/or;  it's both/and.  Abraham believed God and it was fulfilled again when Abraham proved it by his works.

Edited June 20, 2015 by shiloh357
unkind wording

[Ezra]

While we generally focus on these two Scriptures, we seem to forget that several years before these incidents, Abram had already believed and obeyed God when he left Haran and went to Canaan (Gen 12:1-4).  He could have been justified at that point since God gave him a promise right then (Gen 12:7,8).  Scripture says that whosoever shall call upon the name of the LORD shall be saved, and we read in Gen 12:8 "...he builded an altar  unto the LORD, AND CALLED UPON THE NAME OF THE LORD". So Abram was saved even before Scripture says that he received imputed righteousness.

[Tristen]

Hi Bcbsr,

 

Sincere faith inspires a reaction. Faith in the gospel inspires a surrendering of one’s life to Christ. According to Paul;

 

Ephesians 2:8-9

⁸ For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, ⁹ not of works, lest anyone should boast.

 

Salvation cannot be earned. Our works are of no consequence to God with regards to justification. Salvation is accessed by grace (i.e. is utterly unmerited – independent of the virtue of our actions), through the mechanism of faith, as manifest in our faith confession (a.k.a. calling on the Lord - Romans 10:8-13). Likewise, our living faith (after salvation) is manifested in the “fruit of the Spirit” (Galatians 5:22-23). As Paul goes on to say in Ephesians;

 

Ephesians 2:10

¹⁰ For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand that we should walk in them.

 

 

According to James, righteousness was accounted to Abraham because of his faith, as demonstrated by his subsequent actions. A faith that does not manifest in any outward expression is an insincere, lip-service faith – empty, pointless and ultimately ineffective.

[bcbsr]

While we generally focus on these two Scriptures, we seem to forget that several years before these incidents, Abram had already believed and obeyed God when he left Haran and went to Canaan (Gen 12:1-4).  He could have been justified at that point since God gave him a promise right then (Gen 12:7,8).  Scripture says that whosoever shall call upon the name of the LORD shall be saved, and we read in Gen 12:8 "...he builded an altar  unto the LORD, AND CALLED UPON THE NAME OF THE LORD". So Abram was saved even before Scripture says that he received imputed righteousness.

 

Doesn't "saved" and "received imputed righteousness" mean the same thing? Does it say that Abraham was justified prior to Gen 15:6 and then lost his justification and gained it back in Gen 15;6, lost it again and gained it back again in Gen 22? I just don't see the Bible saying that.

 

Paul's whole point in Romans 4 what that Abraham was justified "apart from works". That is, without regards to his compliance to commands. His justification was not contingent upon his obedience.

[bcbsr]

Hi Bcbsr,

 

Sincere faith inspires a reaction. Faith in the gospel inspires a surrendering of one’s life to Christ. According to Paul;

 

Ephesians 2:8-9

⁸ For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, ⁹ not of works, lest anyone should boast.

 

Salvation cannot be earned. Our works are of no consequence to God with regards to justification. Salvation is accessed by grace (i.e. is utterly unmerited – independent of the virtue of our actions), through the mechanism of faith, as manifest in our faith confession (a.k.a. calling on the Lord - Romans 10:8-13). Likewise, our living faith (after salvation) is manifested in the “fruit of the Spirit” (Galatians 5:22-23). As Paul goes on to say in Ephesians;

 

Ephesians 2:10

¹⁰ For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand that we should walk in them.

 

 

According to James, righteousness was accounted to Abraham because of his faith, as demonstrated by his subsequent actions. A faith that does not manifest in any outward expression is an insincere, lip-service faith – empty, pointless and ultimately ineffective.

 

According to James the scripture that says, "Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness." was not fulfilled until Gen 22 when Abraham offered Isaac in obedience to God's command.

[Guest shiloh357]

There is a concept of dual fulfillment.   A Scripture can be "fulfilled"  more than once and in different ways.   You evidently don't understand that concept, bcbsr.

[bcbsr]

There is a concept of dual fulfillment.   A Scripture can be "fulfilled"  more than once and in different ways.   You evidently don't understand that concept, bcbsr.

 

Your attempt to get around what it says has once again failed. Or are you saying that Abraham was justified in Gen 15 and then lost his justified status and gained it back again in Gen 22? 

[Guest shiloh357]

My attempt has not failed.  You are not a "Berean"  nor are you a Bible believer.  To someone like you that doesn't believe the Bible, no amount of sound hermeneutics will reach you.   It hasn't failed, you are simply unskilled in the Scriptures and so far you have rejected at least two books of the Bible.

 

Abraham was justified before God apart from works before God in Genesis 15  and his testimony is justified in Genesis 22.   

[bcbsr]

... his testimony is justified in Genesis 22.   

 

Nope, not consistent with the rhetoric James uses. Gen 15:6, which James quotes in James 2:23 speaks not of a person's "testimony being justified" in the sight of man, but about the person himself being justified in the sight of God. 

 

And what does it matter whether or not a man in justified in the eyes of men? Are you so obsessed about man's opinion of your salvation status?