Catholic Idolatry

[enoob57]

18 minutes ago, Mishael said:

Doesn't say scripture alone is sufficient. Nothing reaches the leveled the scriptures I'm with you on that, but without Sacred Tradition which preserves doctrines first taught orally by Jesus to the apostles and later passed down to us through the apostles' successors, the bishops, you'd then be interpreting the words of the Bible through your own understanding.

It clever subtle way to trust outside of the Scriptures and those born of God trusting in God's Word alone will simply not do this... The Holy Spirit is the teacher and we hear His instruction through the avenues the Scriptures say His instruction will come... and the self evident truth of church tradition did not do well with the catholics as they have become an abomination to the Scriptures in their traditions... 

[Mishael]

7 minutes ago, enoob57 said:

It clever subtle way to trust outside of the Scriptures and those born of God trusting in God's Word alone will simply not do this... The Holy Spirit is the teacher and we hear His instruction through the avenues the Scriptures say His instruction will come... and the self evident truth of church tradition did not do well with the catholics as they have become an abomination to the Scriptures in their traditions... 

Can you show me where in the Bible are the words scripture alone is sufficient. Also with each sect of Protestantism interpreting the Bible as they see fit who do you think is the real abomination?

[Mishael]

5 minutes ago, Yowm said:

What truths has the 'apostles successors' added to Scriptures (besides their own interpretation) that weren't already in the Scriptures?

What doctrine has been preserved that wasn't derived from Scripture?

Sacred or apostolic tradition consists of the teachings that the apostles passed on orally through their preaching. These teachings largely (perhaps entirely) overlap with those contained in Scripture, but the mode of their transmission is different. 

[Guest shiloh357]

1 hour ago, Mishael said:

Then should I recite it in Greek? 

No, you need to translated it correctly.  

[Mishael]

Just now, shiloh357 said:

No, you need to translated it correctly.  

Read above, I already gave the meaning of the original Greek word.

[Guest shiloh357]

5 minutes ago, Mishael said:

Read above, I already gave the meaning of the original Greek word.

LOL no you didn't.  You gave the RCC mistranslation.

[Mishael]

5 minutes ago, shiloh357 said:

LOL no you didn't.  You gave the RCC mistranslation.

Lol you need to learn Greek:

In Luke 1:28, the word that the angel uses is kecharitomene. So its not literally "full of grace," but its root word is the Greek verb "to give grace" (charitoo). The word is the past perfect tense, meaning that the action of giving grace has already occurred. It was not something that was about to happen to her but something that has already been accomplished. The word was also used as a title. The angel did not say, "Hail Mary, you are kecharitomene" but rather, "Hail kecharitomene." Therefore the word is not simply an action but an identity.

 

 

Edited April 17, 2018 by Mishael

[Guest shiloh357]

4 minutes ago, Mishael said:

Lol you need to learn Greek:

In Luke 1:28, the word that the angel uses is kecharitomene. So its not literally "full of grace," but its root word is the Greek verb "to give grace" (charitoo). The word is the past perfect tense, meaning that the action of giving grace has already occurred. It was not something that was about to happen to her but something that has already been accomplished. The word was also used as a title. The angel did not say, "Hail Mary, you are kecharitomene" but rather, "Hail kecharitomene." Therefore the word is not simply an action but an identity.

 

 

I have an education in graduate level Greek.   "Highly favored"  agrees with the Greek.   "Gratia plena" is Latin for "highly favored." That's where the RCC translation comes from, not from the Greek. That's the problem.   You are fraudulently trying to pass off a Latin translation "full of grace" as if it comes from the Greek.   The Latin Dhouay-Rheims is not a literal translation from the Greek.  

Kecharitomene is a verb and speaks to an action, the action of being favored.   "Gratia plena" is a noun and means "full of grace"  so there is a real problem in translation

Edited April 17, 2018 by shiloh357

[Mishael]

15 minutes ago, shiloh357 said:

I have an education in graduate level Greek.   "Highly favored"  agrees with the Greek.   "Gratia plena" is Latin for "highly favored." That's where the RCC translation comes from, not from the Greek. That's the problem.   You are fraudulently trying to pass off a Latin translation "full of grace" as if it comes from the Greek.   The Latin Dhouay-Rheims is not a literal translation from the Greek.  

Kecharitomene is a verb and speaks to an action, the action of being favored.   "Gratia plena" is a noun and means "full of grace"  so there is a real problem in translation

Doesn't make much of a difference, it has been translated by various scholars as "full of grace", "graced one," "one who has been made graced," "highly graced," and "highly favored." In the last instance the translator is using the concept that to be graced by God is to find favor with God. It would appear that any translation should use the word "grace," because that is the root word.

[enoob57]

54 minutes ago, Mishael said:

Can you show me where in the Bible are the words scripture alone is sufficient. Also with each sect of Protestantism interpreting the Bible as they see fit who do you think is the real abomination?

2 Timothy 3:15 (KJV)
[15] And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.
[16] All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
[17] That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

https://www.gotquestions.org/sufficiency-of-Scripture.html