The Fullness Of The Gentiles

[Mr. M]

Romans 11:25 For I do not desire, brethren, that you should be ignorant of this mystery,

lest you should be wise in your own opinion, that blindness in part has happened to Israel

until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in.

Is there a quantitative means of determining the conditions

under which "the fullness of the Gentiles have come in".

[Stewardofthemystery]

11 hours ago, Mr. M said:

Is there a quantitative means of determining the conditions

under which "the fullness of the Gentiles have come in".

Yes, but the numerical time line is not to be understood “naturally” but is “spiritually discerned.”

From the time when the AOD was set up in 70 ad until “the fullness of the Gentiles”is symbolically shown as 1,260 days.  The completion of this time will be “marked”by the 6th seal signs in the sun, moon, and stars.  This time will mark the end of “the first tribulation,”which was to the Jews, but it will also begin the Great Tribulation and wrath of God being poured out on the Nations of the world.

This time of 1,260 days will also be marked by God’s favor and Spirit returning to Israel, when God will once again fight for Israel as He did in the days of old.

This time of 1,260 days is not the end. As the end comes at 1,335 days in the prophecy time line.

Daniel 12:10-13

King James Version

10 Many shall be purified, and made white, and tried; but the wicked shall do wickedly: and none of the wicked shall understand; but the wise shall understand.

11 And from the time that the daily sacrifice shall be taken away, and the abomination that maketh desolate set up, there shall be a thousand two hundred and ninety days.

12 Blessed is he that waiteth, and cometh to the thousand three hundred and five and thirty days.

13 But go thou thy way till the end be: for thou shalt rest, and stand in thy lot at the end of the days.”

 

[WilliamL]

On 6/20/2024 at 7:12 PM, Mr. M said:

Romans 11:25 For I do not desire, brethren, that you should be ignorant of this mystery,

lest you should be wise in your own opinion, that blindness in part has happened to Israel

until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in.

Is there a quantitative means of determining the conditions

under which "the fullness of the Gentiles have come in".

Joseph, Part 4: “The Fullness of the Nations”

Genesis 48:19 …but truly his [Manasseh’s] younger brother [Ephraim] shall be greater than he, and his seed shall become the fullness of the nations.

Romans 11:25 …blindness in part has happened to Israel UNTIL the fullness/plērōma of the nations shall have come in. 26 And AFTER that all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob: 27 For this is my covenant with them, when I shall take away their sins.

Ephesians 1:7 In Him [Jesus] we have redemption through His blood… 10 UNTO a dispensation of the fullness/plērōma of the times, to head up all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth, [even] in him.

Luke 21:24 And they [the Jews] shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations. And Jerusalem shall be being trodden down by the nations UNTIL the times of the nations be fulfilled/plērōthōsin.

The patriarchal prophecy by Jacob, when he made the sign of the cross with his hands upon the heads of Joseph’s sons Ephraim and Manasseh (Gen. 48:13ff.) – the first instance in the Bible of a laying on of hands – has a much greater significance for our times than most Christians and Jews realize. In part, because Jacob made Joseph “the Nazir/Consecrated One of his brothers” (Gen. 49:26), which consecration passed on through his sons. Christianity, the religion of the cross, was established in Britain by the mid-30’s A.D.

Paul prophesied in Romans 11:25 that when Jacob’s prophecy of “the fullness of the nations” reaches its fulfillment, then, essentially, the End of the Christian Age will come. For God will not begin to restore fallen Israelites to salvation until “AFTER” that time. That time being when the Gospel has been preached to “all the nations” of the earth (Matt. 28:19), primarily through the efforts of Anglo-American evangelists.

Matthew 24:24 And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the inhabited earth for a witness to all the nations; and THEN the end will come.

This worldwide evangelism only became possible through the international law-keeping established by the Pax Britannica and the Pax Americana. AFTER this prophesied era of the evangelization of the nations has been fulfilled, Jesus shall return in the clouds of heaven: then “every eye will see Him,” “all the tribes of the earth will wail,” and the Jews will “mourn for Him,” understanding that He is their Messiah “whom they pierced.” Rev. 1:7; Matt. 24:30; Zech. 12:10

So we should look around the world, and judge whether or not this part of Joseph’s destiny has been fulfilled, or is near to it. Is not the Anglo-American hegemony and its Christianity increasingly being resisted and replaced by an international hegemony of an anti-American and anti-Christian New World Order? If so, “the times of the nations” is near to its fulness.

https://www.worthychristianforums.com/blogs/entry/2936-joseph-part-4-“the-fullness-of-the-nations”/

[NConly]

54 minutes ago, WilliamL said:

when he made the sign of the cross with his hands upon the heads of Joseph’s sons Ephraim and Manasseh (Gen. 48:13ff.)

Need help with the cross being made on their head, I do not see that part in Gen 48 or ff

[WilliamL]

On 6/22/2024 at 7:00 PM, NConly said:

Need help with the cross being made on their head, I do not see that part in Gen 48 or ff

Joseph, the new birthright holder, had two sons, Manasseh and Ephraim. Manasseh was the firstborn. Near the end of Jacobʼs/Israelʼs life, however, he adopted Josephʼs two sons as his own:

And Jacob said unto Joseph…thy two sons, Ephraim and Manasseh…are mine; as Reuben and Simon, they shall be mine. Gen. 48:3, 5

Notice that in these words, Israel spoke the name of the younger Ephraim first. Notice also that Ephraim and Manasseh were to be to Israel “as Reuben and Simon”: that is, as his firstborn and secondborn. Ephraimʼs elevation to the position of firstborn was confirmed a few moments later, when Joseph brought Manasseh toward Israelʼs right hand, and Ephraim toward his left hand. (So Ephraim was at Joseph’s right hand.) Israel crossed his hands, so he could place his right hand on Ephraimʼs head, and his left hand on Manassehʼs:

And when Joseph saw that his father laid his right hand upon the head of Ephraim, it displeased him… And Joseph said unto his father, Not so, my father: for this [Manasseh] is the firstborn: put thy right hand upon his head. And his father refused, and said, I know it, my son, I know it…but truly his younger brother shall be greater than he, and his seed shall become the fullness of the nations. [Hebrew, וְזַרְעֹו יִהְיֶה מְלֹא־הַגֹּויִם; the Greek Septuagint has, kαι το σπέρμα αυτού έσται εις πλήθος εθνών: and his seed will be in (or, among) a multitude of nations. The KJV mostly follows the Septuagint; but see Rom. 11:25 in Part 3, where the Greek follows the Hebrew text.] Gen. 48:17-19

https://www.worthychristianforums.com/blogs/entry/2928-joseph-part-2-the-heritage-of-joseph/

The whole history of Israel is filled with such symbolic actions orchestrated by God. Which is why it is often said, "The OT is the NT concealed, the NT is the OT revealed."

 

[NConly]

6 minutes ago, WilliamL said:

Joseph, the new birthright holder, had two sons, Manasseh and Ephraim. Manasseh was the firstborn. Near the end of Jacobʼs/Israelʼs life, however, he adopted Josephʼs two sons as his own:

And Jacob said unto Joseph…thy two sons, Ephraim and Manasseh…are mine; as Reuben and Simon, they shall be mine. Gen. 48:3, 5

Notice that in these words, Israel spoke the name of the younger Ephraim first. Notice also that Ephraim and Manasseh were to be to Israel “as Reuben and Simon”: that is, as his firstborn and secondborn. Ephraimʼs elevation to the position of firstborn was confirmed a few moments later, when Joseph brought Manasseh toward Israelʼs right hand, and Ephraim toward his left hand. (So Ephraim was at Joseph’s right hand.) Israel crossed his hands, so he could place his right hand on Ephraimʼs head, and his left hand on Manassehʼs:

And when Joseph saw that his father laid his right hand upon the head of Ephraim, it displeased him… And Joseph said unto his father, Not so, my father: for this [Manasseh] is the firstborn: put thy right hand upon his head. And his father refused, and said, I know it, my son, I know it…but truly his younger brother shall be greater than he, and his seed shall become the fullness of the nations. [Hebrew, וְזַרְעֹו יִהְיֶה מְלֹא־הַגֹּויִם; the Greek Septuagint has, kαι το σπέρμα αυτού έσται εις πλήθος εθνών: and his seed will be in (or, among) a multitude of nations. The KJV mostly follows the Septuagint; but see Rom. 11:25 in Part 3, where the Greek follows the Hebrew text.] Gen. 48:17-19

https://www.worthychristianforums.com/blogs/entry/2928-joseph-part-2-the-heritage-of-joseph/

The whole history of Israel is filled with such symbolic actions orchestrated by God. Which is why it is often said, "The OT is the NT concealed, the NT is the OT revealed."

 

Ok the other post leads one to think that Israel/Jacob drew a cross on the forehead. Israel crossing his arms to make sure  the younger got the better blessing is a different picture. Thanks

[farouk]

7 hours ago, NConly said:

Ok the other post leads one to think that Israel/Jacob drew a cross on the forehead. Israel crossing his arms to make sure  the younger got the better blessing is a different picture. Thanks

HI @NConly I may be wrong, but I wonder if I'm seeing in this thread an element of British Israelitism.

Another of their ideas is that the Union Jack flag is really something to do with Jacob. Because Jacob is supposedly Jack, therefore this "proves" that the British race is theologically superior, or something like that.

[NConly]

45 minutes ago, farouk said:

HI @NConly I may be wrong, but I wonder if I'm seeing in this thread an element of British Israelitism.

Another of their ideas is that the Union Jack flag is really something to do with Jacob. Because Jacob is supposedly Jack, therefore this "proves" that the British race is theologically superior, or something like that.

First I have heard about the Jack flag theory. I don't think I would agree with it.

[Michael37]

1 hour ago, NConly said:

First I have heard about the Jack flag theory. I don't think I would agree with it.

These sort of associations get cobbled together all the time, without substance. 

"Jack" occupies 6 pages of the complete second edition of the Oxford English Dictionary and the use of the word in English goes back to the 14th century, appearing as a forename in Piers Plowman. Quite early on it was used as a name for a peasant or "a man of the lower orders".^[1] It continued the low class connotations in phrases such as "jack tar" for a common seaman, "every man jack," or the use of jack for the knave in cards. The diminutive form is also seen in "Jack of all trades, master of none", where Jack implies a poor tradesman, possibly not up to journeyman standard. The term was taken into inanimate objects and denoted a small (or occasionally inferior) component: jack-pit (a small mine shaft), jackplug (single pronged, low current), jack-shaft (intermediate or idler shaft), jack (in bowling: the small ball) or jack-engine (a donkey or barring engine). 

Incidentally, a jack is a garment for the upper body (quotes from 1375 onwards), a jacket is derived from this and is a small jack; not the other way around. Jack (flag) - Wikipedia

[NConly]

6 hours ago, Michael37 said:

These sort of associations get cobbled together all the time, without substance. 

"Jack" occupies 6 pages of the complete second edition of the Oxford English Dictionary and the use of the word in English goes back to the 14th century, appearing as a forename in Piers Plowman. Quite early on it was used as a name for a peasant or "a man of the lower orders".^[1] It continued the low class connotations in phrases such as "jack tar" for a common seaman, "every man jack," or the use of jack for the knave in cards. The diminutive form is also seen in "Jack of all trades, master of none", where Jack implies a poor tradesman, possibly not up to journeyman standard. The term was taken into inanimate objects and denoted a small (or occasionally inferior) component: jack-pit (a small mine shaft), jackplug (single pronged, low current), jack-shaft (intermediate or idler shaft), jack (in bowling: the small ball) or jack-engine (a donkey or barring engine). 

Incidentally, a jack is a garment for the upper body (quotes from 1375 onwards), a jacket is derived from this and is a small jack; not the other way around. Jack (flag) - Wikipedia

@farouk

Ok so I did a little reading online and found info here ;;; orange-street-church.org/text/union-jack-flag.htm

The above church promotes the theory that @Farouk spoke about.

Also here ;;; etymonline.com/search?q=jack

I can say "jack of all trades, master of none" I have heard since my teens.