Whose Son is David's Lord?

[4Pillars]

Matthew 22:41-46

41While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them,

42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The son of David.

43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,

44 The LORD said unto my Lord (David's Lord), Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?

45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?

46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions.

Based on my understanding of the Scripture, Jesus Christ is YHWH himself, the Son of the Invisible Almighty God Father -- whose name is not yet known to any man, at this time. JMHO

I might be wrong though -- your thoughts are appreciated ...

Note: Insertions are mine for clarity of my thoughts.

God Bless

[EricH]

Matthew 22:41-46

41While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them,

42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The son of David.

43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,

44 The LORD said unto my Lord (David's Lord), Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?

45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?

46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions.

Based on my understanding of the Scripture, Jesus Christ is YHWH himself, the Son of the Invisible Almighty God Father -- whose name is not yet known to any man, at this time. JMHO

I might be wrong though -- your thoughts are appreciated ...

Note: Insertions are mine for clarity of my thoughts.

God Bless

I agree that it is Jesus.

[4Pillars]

Scripture says No man knows the name of the Almighty God Father -- even to this date -- until we overcometh in the end - and only then the name of the Father would be revealed. Therefore, YHWH could not have been the Almighty Father, as others would us to believe -- since we all know his name, correct?

Look and read:

Revelation 3

12 Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name.

While Jesus also said that he will write upon us his new name (Rev. 3:12), the context of the same text regarding the name of his God does not state that it will be a new name, am I correct?

And if YHWH is the Almighty God himself, then Jesus is only pulling our legs -- promising to reveal the name of his God -- when in fact, it's already widely known to us -- as documented in the Scripture (OT)! If so, what do we have to overcometh?

Ephesians 3

14 For this cause I bow my knees unto the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, v15 Of whom the whole family in heaven and earth is named,

Edited July 1, 2007 by 4Pillars

[eric]

4Pillars, Here is Matthew Henry's commentary on the verses you quoted;

When Christ baffled his enemies, he asked what thoughts they had of the promised Messiah? How he could be the Son of David and yet his Lord? He quotes Ps 110:1. If the Christ was to be a mere man, who would not exist till many ages after David's death, how could his forefather call him Lord? The Pharisees could not answer it. Nor can any solve the difficulty except he allows the Messiah to be the Son of God, and David's Lord equally with the

Father. He took upon him human nature, and so became God manifested in the flesh; in this sense he is the Son of man and the Son of David. It behoves us above all things seriously to inquire, to ?What think we of Christ? to ? Is he altogether glorious in our eyes, and precious to our hearts? May Christ be our joy, our confidence, our all. May we daily be made more like to him, and more devoted to his service.

hope this helps.

[Guest shiloh357]

Scripture says No man knows the name of the Almighty God Father -- even to this date -- until we overcometh in the end - and only then the name of the Father would be revealed. Therefore, YHWH could not have been the Almighty Father, as others would us to believe -- since we all know his name, correct?

No, that is not quite correct. What we do not know is how His Name is pronounced. The Hebrew language in the OT consistently uses YHVH (the four-letter tetragrammaton) to reveal the Name of the the Father. The first time is Genesis 2:14. YHVH is God's redemptive Name, and is always used in connection to His relationship with man. To animals and the rest of the creation, He is "Elohim" but to mankind, He is YHVH.

YHVH Tzidkenu - The LORD our Righteousness

YHVH Nissi - The LORD our Banner

YHVH Kidshenu - The LORD our Sanctifier

Those are just a few ways in which God the Father's Name is used in OT Scripture. We know His Name, just not how it is pronounced. There are several variations, Yahweh, Yahveh, Yehovah, Jehovah, Yahwah, Yahvoh, etc. The list is quite long.

[4Pillars]

In John 8:53-58 we read the following exchanges between the pharisees and Jesus....

John 8

53 Art thou greater than our father Abraham, which is dead? and the prophets are dead: whom makest thou thyself? v54 Jesus answered, If I honour myself, my honour is nothing: it is MY FATHER that honoureth me; OF WHOM YE SAY THAT HE IS YOUR GOD: v55 YET YE HAVE NOT KNOWN HIM; but I know him: and if I should say, I know him not, I shall be a liar like unto you: but I know him, and keep his saying.

Can you see the implication of what Jesus asserted to the Jewish Scribes and Pharisees who were biblical scholars and authoritative of the Scripture -- He just told them that they have NOT known his Father of whom they claimed him to be their God! How could that be possible?

In fact, YHWH had appeared unto their forefathers on several occasions in the OT and told them that He is their God. The only God physically formed for them to see and witness (in the old testament) -- since, except the Son, no man, hath seen God at anytime . If so then, who was the "Lord" who appeared physically unto Abraham and unto their forefathers in the old testament? Is Jesus lying or telling the truth -- if no man hath seen God?

Let us continue reading...

John 8

56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad. v57 Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham? v58 Jesus said unto them, verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

The answer is very simple to me at least -- Jesus told them the truth!!! He is YHWH himself -- the Son of God -- who appeared unto their forefathers. Else, there would just be too many biblical contradictions to overcome to claim otherwise -- since, no man hath seen God at anytime -- who is an invisible Spirit that never change. JMHO

God Bless

Edited July 1, 2007 by 4Pillars

[Guest shiloh357]

In John 8:53-58 we read the following exchanges between the pharisees and Jesus....

John 8

53 Art thou greater than our father Abraham, which is dead? and the prophets are dead: whom makest thou thyself? v54 Jesus answered, If I honour myself, my honour is nothing: it is MY FATHER that honoureth me; OF WHOM YE SAY THAT HE IS YOUR GOD: v55 YET YE HAVE NOT KNOWN HIM; but I know him: and if I should say, I know him not, I shall be a liar like unto you: but I know him, and keep his saying.

Can you see the implication of what Jesus asserted to the Jewish Scribes and Pharisees who were biblical scholars and authoritative of the Scripture -- He just told them that they have NOT known his Father of whom they claimed him to be their God! How could that be possible?

Jesus was talking about spiritually knowing Him or rather non knowing Him spiritually. This has no bearing on God's Name. Even then Jesus was not speak to ALL of the Pharisees, only His detractors. In the 1st Century, there were nine orders of Pharisees and totaled in the tens of thousands. Jesus was not speaking to all of them. Jesus was speaking to limited audience, namely His enemies in the Sanhedrin.

In fact, YHWH had appeared unto their forefathers on several occasions in the OT and told them that He is their God. The only God physically formed for them to see and witness (in the old testament) -- since, except the Son, no man, hath seen God at anytime . If so then, who was the "Lord" who appeared physically unto Abraham and unto their forefathers in the old testament? Is Jesus lying or telling the truth -- if no man hath seen God?

Well, it is agreed by many theologians that many of the pre-incarnate appearances of the Lord were what we call "theophanies." Jesus appearing to Abraham, wrestling with Jacob, with the three Hebrew men in the firey furnace, etc. and possibly others in the OT.

However, this in no way, lends any support to saying that the Father's name is not YHVH. The Father is God. Jesus is God. The Holy Spirit is God. God's name is YHVH. Jesus' Name as He was known on earth was actually "Yeshua" and simply referred to His purpose for coming to earth. Jesus is both Salvation and Savior. He is the Son of God and God. So there is reason to say that the same Name, YHVH, cannot apply to the entire God-head.

Let us continue reading...

John 8

56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad. v57 Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham? v58 Jesus said unto them, verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

The answer is very simple to me at least -- Jesus told them the truth!!! He is YHWH himself -- the Son of God -- who appeared unto their forefathers. Else, there would just be too many biblical contradictions to overcome to claim otherwise -- since, no man hath seen God at anytime -- who is an invisible Spirit that never change. JMHO

Jesus was simply making reference to His Divine pre-existence, therfore, calling Himself God.

[Massorite]

Hello

God has many Divine names and titles and each one has a spicific meaning.

Elohim which means "The Creator"

Jehovah which speaks of Gods Covenant Relationship with His Created/ us.

Jehovah-Jireh "Our Provider"

Elyon as possessor of the earth.

Shaddai means "Almighty"

Adonai which means"Lord"

Jehovah-Ro which means Jehovah my Shepherd and there are many more names of God most of which are in the Hebrew.

[4Pillars]

OIC, I also believe in the truine of God as One (echad) -- except it differs with the traditional trinity doctrinal view.

It is my understanding however, that Jesus is YHWH himself - the Son of the invisible God -- of whom no man (except him) hath seen at any time nor his name been reveal to anyone. I also believe that I have provided enough Scripture to support my view while my opposition here only based their traditional views on their own opinion -- with no Scriptural support.

Does anyone here knows who the speaker of Revelation 3:12 being quoted here AFTER the resurrection of Christ? If it is the Son, then, who is the Almighty God Father and how many are they, now?

Revelation 3

12 Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name.

God Bless

Edited July 1, 2007 by 4Pillars

[Massorite]

OIC, I also believe in the truine of God as One (echad) -- except it differs with the traditional trinity doctrinal view.

It is my understanding however, that Jesus is YHWH himself - the Son of the invisible God -- of whom no man (except him) hath seen at any time nor his name been reveal to anyone. I also believe that I have provided enough Scripture to support my view while my opposition here only based their traditional views on their own opinion -- with no Scriptural support.

Does anyone here knows who the speaker of Revelation 3:12 being quoted here AFTER the resurrection of Christ? If it is the Son, then, who is the Almighty God Father and how many are they, now?

Revelation 3

12 Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name.

God Bless

You must understand that when King James re-did the bible from Hebrew and Greek to old English there are many things that were changed. In the interest helping people better understand the bible King James's court did many conversions Many of the names of God were converted to Lord or God to make it easier to understand. The Hebrews believed that what we now call "Hell" has three different sections, Hades, Tortorus and Gahenna but when King James converted the bible he changed most of those names of places for hell to one word. Hell. Thereby confounding a better understanding of Hell and its three sections. I like to ask people "On the day that Jesus died were did He go. The most common answer is "Heaven" But Jesus told the thief on the croos that he would be with Him in Paradise on that very day. Which tells us that Jesus didn't go to Heaven on the day He died and Paul says that Jesus first decended into the lower reaches of the earth. So by that we know that Paradise is in the lower reaches of the earth which is part of or one of the sections of what we know as Hell. It is the Bossom of Abraham.

The same goes for the names of God. You quoted Revelation 3 to soay that no man knows the name of God but that scripture is not talking about any of the exsisting names of God it is talking about a new name of God. Which we will not know until we die.

In Christ We Walk