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Posted

I've heard about it. I've even witness it. What exactly is praying in tongues and how does it work? :wub:

God Bless You

Jacqueline

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Posted

I'm sorry I meant Speaking in Tongues. :wub:

God Bless You

Jacqueline


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Posted

Speaking in tongues is actually praying to God and worshipping Him in a language that is not learned. It may be a heavenly or earthly language. The Spirit supernaturally gives utterance. It is a gift of the Spirit. In the public church context, it should be followed by an interpretation for edification. The personal use of tongues includes self-edification (he who speaks in an unknown tongue edifies himself). The speaker must move their own mouth, but the Spirit gives the utterance..i.e. God does not make you speak in tongues; we yield and it flows out of us.

Acts and I Cor. 12-14 are relevant passages. This gift is for all believers today. Pentecostals believe it is the initial, physical evidence of being filled with the Spirit (subsequent to salvation when we are baptized by the Spirit into the Body of Christ).

Guest LadyC
Posted

speaking in tongues is when the Holy Spirit overwhelms you with words of a foriegn language... if i'm not mistaken, specifically a foriegn language which was used in the times of Jesus's earthly ministry...

scripture indicates that God will always provide an interpreter when this occurs.

i believe speaking in tongues is often a trick of satan, not a gift of God. i recall as a teenager, i felt incredibly pressured by my christian friends to speak in tongues. i even pretended a few times. i'd just open my mouth and babble a bunch of nonsense just to shut them up. i wonder how many of THEM were doing the same thing?

these were the same friends who insisted i should let go and be slain in the Holy Spirit, and they'd put their hands on my forhead and pray, while pushing me backwards.

Guest mcm42
Posted

:wub: Ahhhh!

Not the tongues thing....uggghhhh do I have too.

I don't want to right now, I'll get back once others respond.


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Posted

Well, of course, any individual conversant to any real extent with Holy Writ will know that there is no such thing anywhere in the Holy Bible as an "unknown" tongue. All biblical languages are known, understood, earthly & national dialects. In the classic Acts 2 passage, the disciples spoke in earthly, national dialects which they had not studied & learned. Period.

The very NAMES of the spoken earthly languages are recorded for all to see & understand in Acts 2: 8-11.

Why cloud a very clear biblical portrayal?

http://arthurdurnan.freeyellow.com


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Posted

Jesus Christ Son of God, have mercy on me, a sinner.

Well, I am able to give a good, spirited (pun definitely intended), and scriptural defense of the practice of speaking in tongues. I believe in it. I engage in it. I believe it is correct scripturally. But none of that is a definite proof that it is 'real' if you will permit the use of the word.

Nonetheless, the practice is quite scriptural, and orthodox, and within the norms of historic Christianity.

With a blessing,

Leonard, a sinner


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Posted

Sorry, I just saw the message: Is this my old Professor, Dr. Arthur Durnan???? Are you related, perchance?

Well, you can't give me an 'F' now, so here goes: What about the tongues of 'angels' Paul mentions. What about the occurances at Samaria and at the house of Cornelius. It is clear from the Scripture that these tongues were never interpreted. Certainly Peter was able to discern only that Cornelius and his household were glorifying God. He was not able to interpret.

Throws a monkey wrench in your thought in any event. I'm not saying that you don't have an answer for it, only that your answer is to my mind, less valid than the questions raised.

Blessings,

Leonard, a sinner

Guest mcm42
Posted

Anyone ever read "Charasmatic Chaos" by John MacArthur? I like that book and I think Macarthur does a great job with this issue in it.

Guest mcm42
Posted
It is clear from the Scripture that these tongues were never interpreted

I'm not sure that is clear. Just because the interpretation isn't given doesn't mean it wasn't understood. And just because the Bible doesn't flat out say the tounges were or weren't interpreted doesn't mean they were not.

Also, why do you suppose there is no need for interpreters in the first instance of tongues?

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