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Posted

Maybe I'm being too pedantic :noidea: .

But sin is defined in 1 John 3

1Jn 3:4 Everyone who practices sin also practices lawlessness, for sin is lawlessness.

I am wondering how the sins of omission

Jas 4:17 Therefore to him who knows to do good, and does not do it, to him it is sin.

are taken into account in this definition? Does the law somewhere command us to go good, or is this merely a response to the first commandment?

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Posted

I think another good definition of sin is Selfishness. I have yet to see something, or do something that was sinful and not selfish. Sins of Omission could be cause by selfishness you think? Selfishness and Pride are what caused Satin to fall!


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Posted

Good point Izzy. I think it goes against the Spirit of the law, but I have to get creative to see it in the letter of the law. Perhaps that answers my question?

Anyway... Prov 6 is interesting too. Are the commands in Prov 6 considered laws? (And thus, is not following them a sin?)

Pro 6:16-35 MKJV

16 These six Jehovah hates; yea, seven are hateful to his soul:

17 a proud look, a lying tongue, and hands that shed innocent blood,

18 a heart that plots wicked plans, feet hurrying to run to evil,

19 a false witness who speaks lies, and he who causes fighting among brothers.

20 My son, keep your father's commandments, and do not forsake the law of your mother;

21 bind them upon your heart forever, tie them around your neck.

22 When you go, it shall lead you; when you sleep, it shall keep you; and when you awake, it shall talk with you.

23 For the commandment is a lamp; and the law is light; and reproofs of instruction are the way of life;

24 to keep you from the evil woman, from the flattery of the tongue of a strange woman.

25 Do not lust after her beauty in your heart; nor let her take you with her eyelids.

26 For by means of a harlot a man comes to a piece of bread; and another man's wife will hunt for the precious life.

27 Can a man take fire in his bosom, and his clothes not be burned?

28 Can one go upon hot coals, and his feet not be burned?

29 So is he who goes in to his neighbor's wife; whoever touches her shall not be innocent.

30 They do not despise a thief, if he steals to satisfy his soul when he is hungry;

31 but if he is found, he shall restore sevenfold; he shall give all the goods of his house.

32 Whoever commits adultery with a woman lacks understanding; he who does it destroys his own soul.

33 He shall get a wound and dishonor; and his shame shall not be wiped away.

34 For jealousy is the rage of a man; therefore he will not spare in the day of vengeance.

35 He will not take any ransom; nor will he be willing if you multiply the gifts.

It's really interesting. I see this somewhat as a commentary on the laws... and from my perspective it does highlight the spirit of the law and not the letter of the law. But I am saying this with the benefit of the Holy Spirit dwelling within, and I'm not sure whether that would have been obvious 3000 years ago?


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Posted
Maybe I'm being too pedantic :wub: .

But sin is defined in 1 John 3

1Jn 3:4 Everyone who practices sin also practices lawlessness, for sin is lawlessness.

I am wondering how the sins of omission

Jas 4:17 Therefore to him who knows to do good, and does not do it, to him it is sin.

are taken into account in this definition? Does the law somewhere command us to go good, or is this merely a response to the first commandment?

"Does the law somewhere command us to go good, or is this merely a response to the first commandment?"

sorry to throw a small spanner at you :)

Mat 17:4 Then answered Peter, and said unto Jesus, Lord, it is good for us to be here: if thou wilt, let us make here three tabernacles; one for thee, and one for Moses, and one for Elias.

Mat 17:5 While he yet spake, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them: and behold a voice out of the cloud, which said, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him.

Not Moses (the Law), not Elias (the Prophets) but Jesus, the Word of God.

what does Jesus say :emot-highfive:

Mat 5:48 Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.

ops :cool:

Who can be perfect as God is?

Well..Jesus is. Therefore if we are in him.....

Rom 8:1 There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

Me thinks...We try our best and trust in Jesus, knowing very well that we mess up every day. We confess that we are sinners and live by grace :emot-highfive:

Remember..it takes only one sin to be separated from God...Adam proved that. Hence, we live by GRACE!

as for sins of omission...well, if one happens to realize them...confess and repent. However, most sins of omission are unknown to us and i am grateful for that.... else I would run about all day screaming :)

:noidea:


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Posted

a brother at bible study last night said anything done without faith is sin, a few people agreed...I'm still thinking on this.


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Posted

Romans 14:22-23 (New International Version)

22So whatever you believe about these things keep between yourself and God. Blessed is the man who does not condemn himself by what he approves. 23But the man who has doubts is condemned if he eats, because his eating is not from faith; and everything that does not come from faith is sin.

Is this what you mean? It is biblical.


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Posted

Sin is unbelief. People sin because of their unbelief in the Word of God. Lieing, stealing, etc. all attributes of sin.


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Posted

I've heard that the Hebrew word for "sin" has the connotation of "Missing the mark." Thus sin is any deed, word, or thought, that "misses the mark" from God's perfection (love, etc.).


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Posted
I've heard that the Hebrew word for "sin" has the connotation of "Missing the mark." Thus sin is any deed, word, or thought, that "misses the mark" from God's perfection (love, etc.).

Me too!

That is how it was explained to me when I got saved...

Although when I read about the definition of sin from 1 John 3, I wonder then if that is the full story? Is that definition just one way to sin?


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Posted
I've heard that the Hebrew word for "sin" has the connotation of "Missing the mark." Thus sin is any deed, word, or thought, that "misses the mark" from God's perfection (love, etc.).

Me too!

That is how it was explained to me when I got saved...

Although when I read about the definition of sin from 1 John 3, I wonder then if that is the full story? Is that definition just one way to sin?

Well, if lawlessness means "outside the law", and the law being the law of God, then we are back again to "missing the mark."

Possibly?

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