ezekiel's (ch 40) man w/ the measuring rod as Jesus?

[drossfurnace]

The measurements the angel measured was of the city being 144 square miles of all four sides read further vs. 16...........

This was what the prophet Ezekiel was being shown for a future time when New Jerusalem would descend out of heaven in all of it's splender.

The man in Ezekiel was an angel also.

i agree the man in ezekiel was an angel.... I disagree that he was being shown new jerusalem. he was obviously being shown a physical temple. but in new jerusalem there is no physical temple.............

Rev 21:22 I did not see a temple in the city, because the Lord God Almighty and the Lamb are its temple.

or at least thats how i understand it.......

[traveller]

In Exodus 20 we see the children of Israel as they received the law from God. And immediately afterwards, they begged Moses to intercede for them, for they could not bear to hear God's voice.

Exd 20:1 And God spake all these words, saying,

Exd 20:2 I [am] the LORD thy God, which have brought thee out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage.

He went on the speak the law. And then.....

Exd 20:18 And all the people saw the thunderings, and the lightnings, and the noise of the trumpet, and the mountain smoking: and when the people saw [it], they removed, and stood afar off.

Exd 20:19 And they said unto Moses, Speak thou with us, and we will hear: but let not God speak with us, lest we die.

So, as was discussed a few posts back, didn't they actually hear the voice of the Father?

[drossfurnace]

Exd 20:18 And all the people saw the thunderings, and the lightnings, and the noise of the trumpet, and the mountain smoking: and when the people saw [it], they removed, and stood afar off.

Exd 20:19 And they said unto Moses, Speak thou with us, and we will hear: but let not God speak with us, lest we die.

So, as was discussed a few posts back, didn't they actually hear the voice of the Father?

it sure seems so to me. John 5:36-38

36"I have testimony weightier than that of John. For the very work that the Father has given me to finish, and which I am doing, testifies that the Father has sent me. 37And the Father who sent me has himself testified concerning me. You have never heard his voice nor seen his form, 38nor does his word dwell in you, for you do not believe the one he sent.

sure seems contextual to me... but john 1:18 proves a little more tricky... more in the respect of SEEING the Father rather than hearing

18No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him. (nasb)

18No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only,who is at the Father's side, has made him known. (niv)

18No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (kjv)

this all seems to fly in the face of rev 5:1 & 5:7

1I saw in the right hand of Him who sat on the throne a book written inside and on the back, sealed up with seven seals.

7And He came and took the book out of the right hand of Him who sat on the throne. (((((the one who took the scroll being the lamb/Jesus))))

I guess my question is: It must be possible to SEE the Father, right? bc it seems like John in Revelation saw Him (albeit not face to face) .... Ezekiel also saw Him apparently, and i think probably Isaiah also during the "coal to lips" episode..................... thoughts?

[Botz]

John 1:18No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.

In this instance I believe there are several clues that lead to a more specific understanding than the translations we have available to us....One thing I have often noticed in translations, is that when things don't quite add up and we don't get a clear picture in our heads, or our spirits remain unenlightened, then it is probably due to our own misconceptions brought about by the way the Scripture has been presented and translated, sometimes the word order can thrown one off the scent, or the true sense of what is being said is shrouded due to inconsistencies in translation.

An example might be in the so-called Ten Commandments, where a better and more careful translation renders 'Thou shalt not kill' into 'Thou shalt not murder', because Scripture is clear that killings have at times been needful, and even instigated by G-d Himself, but murder involves an unjustifiable action.

In the passage from John, the clue is at the end of the sentence where it says of the Son, that He has 'explained' G-d, and this is in reference to nobody having 'seen' G-d....which leads on to looking at the actual word in translation, ὁράω-horao which can be expanded to mean more than just seeing with the eyes, but perceiving and understanding through and through.

The mystery and the compelling revelation that extends from this understanding is that only G-d could ever possibly explain Himself to anyone, which is precisely what the Scripture is stating, and thus presenting another clue to the very nature of this Word made flesh, our L-rd and Messiah.