What is the doctrine of the Trinity?

[theQuestion]

Jesus' disciples were (and ARE) in union with God and Christ.

Jesus said his Father is the ONLY true God- so that means he represents God at John 1:1 as Moses once did- Ex 7:1.

The Holy Breath ( "Spirit") of God is Hios power- not another God nor 1/3 God.

[HAZARD]

2 minutes ago, theQuestion said:

Jesus' disciples were (and ARE) in union with God and Christ.

Jesus said his Father is the ONLY true God- so that means he represents God at John 1:1 as Moses once did- Ex 7:1.

The Holy Breath ( "Spirit") of God is Hios power- not another God nor 1/3 God.

John 14:26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you. 

In John 14:26, "HE" is called the comforter, the Holy Ghost, and "HE" shall teach you all things. 

Acts 2:33-39 refers to three separate persons of the deity: It is said of
Jesus [one person], "Therefore being BY THE RIGHT HAND of God exalted and
having RECIEVED OF THE FATHER [another person] the promise OF THE HOLY GHOST [a
third person] He hath shed forth THIS [the Holy Ghost] which ye now SEE and
HEAR." Thus TWO persons, Jesus in His flesh and bone body, and the Father
who is spirit, stayed in Heaven sitting side by side, and the Holy Ghost (a third
person) came from the two in Heaven to take the place of Jesus among men.

In the beginning God revealed the Godhead as consisting of more than one
person. In Gen. 2:26 "And God said, LET US make man in OUR IMAGE, after
OUR LIKENESS." Also in Gen. 3:22 He plainly said, "The man is become
AS ONE OF US." The phrase "as one of" means "like each
person of several persons of the same kind," as proved wherever the
statement "as one of" is found in Scripture (Gen. 19:14; 42:27;
49:16; Ex. 12:48; Lev. 19:34; 24:22; Num. 12:12; 2 Sam. 13:13; 14:13; Job 12:4;
ect., no person uses such a phrase and not refer to more than one person who
could make "us." If God refers to the Godhead as "us" we
should take it that He knows what He is talking about and that there are more
than one person in the Godhead.

By the way, I'm not Catholic.

[theQuestion]

Jesus was neither thinking, nor referring to the Breath ("Spirit") of God- but the One who would be working THRU that Power.

No nameless 'Ghost' ('Holy Ghost') is God or 1/3 God- that was fabricated by the Catholic Church.

There are SO many examples showing what it REALLY is such as~

Num 11: 16 -And Jehovah said unto Moses, Gather unto me seventy men of the elders of Israel, whom thou knowest to be the elders of the people, and officers over them; and bring them unto the tent of meeting, that they may stand there with thee. 
17 -And I will come down and talk with thee there: and I will take some of the Spirit which is upon thee, and will put it upon them; and they shall bear the burden of the people with thee, that thou bear it not thyself alone.- ASV

The Holy Spirit is divided up, and referred to by GOD HIMSELF as "it"!

 

[HAZARD]

21 minutes ago, theQuestion said:

Jesus' disciples were (and ARE) in union with God and Christ.

Jesus said his Father is the ONLY true God- so that means he represents God at John 1:1 as Moses once did- Ex 7:1.

The Holy Breath ( "Spirit") of God is Hios power- not another God nor 1/3 God.

They are "ONE" in unity in all things as Jesus said when He asked the Father when He prayed to the Father
this prayer;

"And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come
to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given
me, THAT THEY MAY BE ONE, AS WE ARE" (John 17:11).

And, "That they MAY BE ONE; as thou, Father art IN ME, and I IN THEE, that
they MAY BE ONE IN US: that the world may believe that thou has sent me"
(John 17:21).

"And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; THAT THEY MAY BE
ONE, even AS WE ARE ONE: I in them, and thou IN ME, that they may be made
perfect IN ONE; and that the world may know etc., (John 17:22-23). "And I
have declared unto them thy name, and I will declare it: that the love
where with thou hast loved me may be in them, AND I IN THEM" (John 17:26).

Jesus prayed to the Father to keep His disciples and all His followers
"one in unity" as He and the Father were. He never asked the Father
to allow all the followers and disciples all to get inside one of them and form
"one body" as many Christians believe and wrongly teach Jesus and the
Father are.

[theQuestion]

Agreed!

 

[HAZARD]

1 minute ago, theQuestion said:

Agreed!

 

Praise God for ever more. 

[HAZARD]

Every living being has a body, soul and spirit. Not everyone has the Holy Spirit. "HE," the Holy Spirit. is the comforter the Father sent to teach us.

[Eha]

On 10/15/2018 at 11:24 PM, Mike 2 said:

I'm curious why you say just HOLY SPIRIT instead of THE Holy Spirit like the bible does?

BECAUSE OF BAD ENGLISH, WHICH ISNT MY NATIVE LANGUAGE?
anyway, i leave this forum, so just ignore me.

 

[RevelationWriter]

Acts 5:3 "...lie to The Holy Spirit."

Acts 5:4 "...lied to God."

* Acts 5:9 "...agreed together to Test The Spirit Of The Lord."

Titus 2:13 - "...looking for the blessed hope and glorious appearing of our great God and savior Jesus Christ." - (NKJ)

* Titus 2:13 - "...looking for the blessed hope and appearing of the glory of the great God and of our savior Jesus Christ." (Greek)

If 'The Holy Spirit OF God' IS God, then how come no one in the bible Ever Worshiped The Holy Spirit AS God?

Instead They Worshiped God IN The Spirit Of His Holiness. 

[Hands On]

I must admit that what I am about to posit is more at home with "Apologetics" but nevertheless, I believe, finding an application here as well I have not read all the posts and beg forgiveness for any duplication that I may be guilty of. The most user-friendly way of understanding the Trinity, I find, is simply "not to understand it".This is okay if one is  in Christian circles where all are unanimous in accepting this "mystery" which Easton Bible Dictionary defines inter alia as, "The calling of the Gentiles into the Christian Church, so designated (Eph_1:9, Eph_1:10; Eph_3:8-11; Col_1:25-27); a truth undiscoverable except by revelation, long hid, now made manifest. The resurrection of the dead (1Co_15:51), and other doctrines which need to be explained but which cannot be fully understood by finite intelligence (Mat_13:11; Rom_11:25; 1Co_13:2);..."

But now the challenge arises how does one explain this to a non-believer or all others as in "Always be prepared to give an answer to everyone who asks you to give the reason for the hope that you have...with gentleness and respect" (New International Version. 1 Pet.3:15) and as far as respecting or honoring others in  their beliefs "Honor(timao, my insert) all men.Love(agapeo, my insert) the brotherhood. Fear God. Honor the king."(King James Bible,I Pet 2:17)

Now it is with this aspect and in the context of Peters guidelines, that I had to face a Jehova Witness whom I must admit "bowled" me out at that time, on this aspect of the "mystery" of The Trinity.He actually confronted I never tried to convert him.His"trick" was to confront me with "No one knows about that day or hour, not even the angels in heaven. nor the Son, but only the Father."(New International Version.Mt 24:36). Now, this was a while back before I became a little more Christian streetwise. Regarding the Trinity he argued in words to the following effect "You say that Christ and God are one and that has always been that way since the beginning (Jn 1:1) right?If this is the case how is it possible that the "nor the Son"(Mt 24:36) does not know when the "end of the age" will be?

All I could think of, and my best shot was that old Sunday School song, "because the Bible tells me so".I shamefully admit that I also wondered about this aspect. However, the Holy Spirit came to my rescue which I think could prove quite useful for others who might also find themselves in the same position but this little bit of advice might help to send the ball well and hard into the opponent's court with all due "respect" . Hershel Hobbs offers this explanation, which I believe to be perfectly plausible in terms of "always be ready"(I Pet 3:15) under similar circumstance as shown above. He exposits in the context of Mark's gospel 13;32-37 , "How may we understand this expression of Jesus about His own lack of knowledge concerning the day and hour of His return? While insisting upon His deity we must not ignore His humanity. It was in this latter light that He spoke these words. In His incarnation He assumed certain limitations which are a part of complete humanity,apart from sin.Indeed sin is not a part of humanity as God intended it.And in His perfect humanity Jesus said, 'My doctrine[teaching]is not mine,but his that sent me' (John 7:16).

Again, ' The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise' (John 5:19).The heart of our answer is found in John 8:26,28. ' I speak to the world those things which I have heard of him...I do nothing of myself; but as the Father hath taught me ,I speak these things.The incarnation was a fact, but it is ever a mystery to finite minds.So in the Father's good pleasure.He had not 'taught'the day and hour of Jesus'return.It is governed by condition. When the condition is right that will be the time.And while the triune God knows when the condition will obtain,the Father during the incarnation did not reveal it. It is that which is set in the mind of the Father (Acts 1:7)"(Hobbs An Exposition of The Gospel of Mark.208)I hope this might prove useful to others who might also "fall prey" similar to the incident I encountered.