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Maybe some Protestants/Non-Catholics can answer......


Hoddie

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On 1/24/2017 at 0:41 PM, kwikphilly said:

MsMeffut.....

   No matter how many times you copy/paste ,put up pictures or quote the Scriptures that warns us there are false teachers still does not change the FACT that you have not provided ANY evidence that the people you have single handedly accused & judged here as being one of them......what did YOU hear any one of them say that opposes Gods Word with YOUR OWN EARS???????Just say it.....prove it  & then bring 2 others(here,the Body of Christ that we believe to be credible witnesses that have heard them say these things with their own ears) and actually  I would prefer the accused be here as well,that would be the way it should be done in the Body of Christ or as Paul says ......mind your business because if Christ is being preached,,,rejoice!!!!!If you have nothing t7o provide as EVIDENCE(first hand Msmuffet) then refrain from spreading rumor

 I doubt anyone here gets ANGRY with gotquestions.org......most of us here at WCF do not value commentaries from folks that are not here ,gotquestions.org is the same as Worthy,regular folks with their own opinions,they cannot engage with us...if we wanted to talk with them we would log on there ,not here     So what are everyones false beliefs MsMuffet? Gotquestions.org does not hold water imo.......so what false beliefs do I believe?I refer to the Bible,thats the only commentary I want,Gods Word,not some guy on a question/answer website.........

You know the picture of the little guy beating his head against the wall?  thats how I feel.  We are never going to hear the end of gotquestions.org. 

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Hazard: "The term "canon" is used to describe the books that are divinely inspired and therefore belong in the bible. The difficulity in determining the biblical canon is that the bible does not give us a list of the books that belong in the Bible."

 

Now if the bible does not give a list if the books that belong in the bible as Hazard states, how do Sola Scripturists determine that the books that are in the bible truly belong there? From a Protestant/nondenominational perspective, and if its not in the bible, by who's or what authority determined it?     Hoddie/OP

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On 12/3/2016 at 8:36 PM, Ezra said:

Easy. The apostolic churches already had the Tanakh (Old Testament) since Christian churches came out of Jewish synagogues. Christ defined the canon of the OT as (1) the Law of Moses, (2) the Prophets, and (3) the Psalms.  Those 24 Hebrew books are exactly the same as the 39 books in the Protestant OT.

The Gospels, Acts and epistles were circulated among all the churches, and in fact you will find many epistles with instructions to have them read in other churches.  So the books of the Bible were already in circulation by the end of the first century, and a New Testament canon was already in place before the end of the second century. 

http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/muratorian.html

 

 

 

And the Apocrypha was written (mostly) during the inter-testimental period but rejected by the Jewish people as scripture. Before Jesus. 

 

He made no mention of it, though the Book of Jude alludes to something in it about angels contending for Moses body. (maybe I should read that to make sure I'm getting the reference right instead of trusting my memory?))                                                                     Heyvavhey

King James Bible
Yet Michael the archangel, when contending with the devil he disputed about the body of Moses, durst not bring against him a railing accusation, but said, The Lord rebuke thee.  JUde 1:9

                                                                    Yes,no mention of it                  Good memory Heyvavhey,spot on!      With love-in Christ,Kwik
 

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On 1/26/2017 at 10:37 AM, TheMatrixHasU71 said:

Sorry but I must tell you that the Azusa street this was not a movement of God, and the stories behind it are so contradictory, especially the ones coming from the pastor (also a known white supremacist) that many have rejected it altogether as another movement of Satan.

I would also like to point out too that the gift of tongues in particular didn't last more than 20 or 30 years in the first century. It died pretty quickly and was never meant to last anyway.

Not a movement of God? According to whom?

it's easy to point the finger 110 years later, but I think some very good things came out of that.  Sorry but I disagree. 

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2 hours ago, BacKaran said:

And tongues means the known languages of the day, not the unintellegable babbeling of an uninformed person.

there are actually prayer tongues that only the Spirit understands.

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Guest BacKaran

Oo

I will have to agree to disagree with you on this. The Holy Spirit will interpret my cries and wailing but not babbeling non sense.

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36 minutes ago, Giller said:

I know it is easy to judge something you have not experienced, but be careful, love in Christ.

I would agree with Giller.  We have to be very careful for sure when we point the finger at something as personal as this.  You cannot judge when it comes to someones faith unless it is against what scripture teaches.  

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On ‎1‎/‎28‎/‎2017 at 5:29 PM, BacKaran said:

Oo

I will have to agree to disagree with you on this. The Holy Spirit will interpret my cries and wailing but not babbeling non sense.

Having previously experienced "speaking in tongues" as a Charismatic, I tend to agree with you.  I don't however rule out the possibility, however remote it may be.  Paul writes:

8 Love never fails; but if there are gifts of prophecy, they will be done away; if there are tongues, they will cease; if there is knowledge, it will be done away. 9 For we know in part and we prophesy in part; 10 but when the perfect comes, the partial will be done away.  [1 Corinthians 13:8-10]

When is or has the perfect come?  We know the TR and KJV bibles aren't perfect, but we know God's word is.  When we are filled with the Holy Spirit, and further make Jesus Lord of our lives, hasn't the perfect come?  Being filled with the Holy Spirit is more than speaking nonsense no one understands.  And if one translates the utterances, how can we put our faith in the accuracy of the translator?  Paul rejoiced when he was understood speaking the common tongue.

 

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On ‎1‎/‎26‎/‎2017 at 1:00 PM, Yowm said:

Source?

History. All legit commentators. It was only a temporary sign gift to the Jews that God is also a God of the Gentiles too. Even the Early fathers of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th centuries knew nothing about tongues exept that it was a gift only given to the first church at Pentecost. Also read the bible. In the late epistles or Revelation you will see no mention of them.

 

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1 hour ago, Saved.One.by.Grace said:

Having previously experienced "speaking in tongues" as a Charismatic, I tend to agree with you.  I don't however rule out the possibility, however remote it may be.  Paul writes:

8 Love never fails; but if there are gifts of prophecy, they will be done away; if there are tongues, they will cease; if there is knowledge, it will be done away. 9 For we know in part and we prophesy in part; 10 but when the perfect comes, the partial will be done away.  [1 Corinthians 13:8-10]

When is or has the perfect come?  We know the TR and KJV bibles aren't perfect, but we know God's word is.  When we are filled with the Holy Spirit, and further make Jesus Lord of our lives, hasn't the perfect come?  Being filled with the Holy Spirit is more than speaking nonsense no one understands.  And if one translates the utterances, how can we put our faith in the accuracy of the translator?  Paul rejoiced when he was understood speaking the common tongue.

 

There is no translating at all of babbling nonsense. The bible is very clear that when the gift of tongues was in abundance it was known earthly languages. nothing else.

Ecstatic nonsense was and is something out of pure paganism.

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