Just a question

[Newbie]

Hi all, I have a question.

A few months ago someone on another website asked me this, and I was unable to answer. 

"If God is just, and we know that God is just, how come God allows women who don't want children to get pregnant (and they end up with an abortion) whereas some women who really want a child are forced to remain childless or adopt, as they are unable to get pregnant no matter what. "

I replied with, "God allows these people to get pregnant because of free will. God must give them the choice in order to be just and fair."

The person then asked, "But if God is all-knowing, and we know that He is, doesn't He already know what they will do?"

I replied, "Yes, He does."

The person replied, "But if He already knows what they will do, and He let's them go through with it, how does that apply to Him being a God of justice?"

I was unable to reply, and now I am curious, what would you reply to this question?

[brakelite]

This is an extension to the question, "if God is omnipotent and omniscient, why didn't He step on Lucifer before all the trouble began? Why bother even creating Lucifer to begin with if God knew what would ultimately result?

Have you ever studied the topic of theodicy? The concept of good stuff happening to bad people, and vice versa? The debate over precisely what you were being challenged on above comes under that study of theodicy. It is a deep study, and takes some time and effort to grasp the concepts involved, but I believe you will find it enlightening. While it does involve free-will, as you mentioned some time previously, it goes deeper and explains WHY free-will is so important to God. In fact it's essential. On many levels.

Here's an excellent presentation on theodicy...I think you will find a basis for answering your question after taking this into account.