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Why Did Jesus Preach To The Dead?


ForHisGlory37

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Hello All, I wanted to ask your opinion on what your thoughts concerning these passages:

 

1 Peter 4:6 King James Version (KJV)

For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

 

1 Corinthians 5:5 King James Version (KJV)

To deliver such an one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.

 

Why did Jesus preach to them that were already dead?

What does it mean "to live according to God in the spirit"?

What does it mean that the "spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus?"

 

What are your thoughts as to the meaning of these passages?  Is there hope for those who are dead? 

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1 Peter 3:18-19

It is mentioned that sometime between Jesus' death and resurrection Jesus made a special proclaimation to some imprisoned spirits. No where in the Bible are we told that Jesus visited hell. We are told very little about this. 

Romans 8:5-9

For those who live according to the flesh set their minds on the things of the flesh, but those who live according to the Spirit, the things of the Spirit. For to be carnally minded is death, but to be spiritually minded is life and peace. Because the carnal mind is enmity against God; for it is not subject to the law of God, nor indeed can be. So then, those who are in the flesh cannot please God.

But you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. Now if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he is not His.

 

Edited by missmuffet
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41 minutes ago, missmuffet said:

imprisoned spirits.

Tartarus, where the watchers are imprisoned. Telling them again it was all finished and they were doomed. Their machinations to kill Him had just given God the opportunity to show His wonders thru the crucifiction and resurrection.

'Had they but known, they never would have killed the Lord of glory'. So says the apostle.

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9 hours ago, Justin Adams said:

Tartarus, where the watchers are imprisoned. Telling them again it was all finished and they were doomed. Their machinations to kill Him had just given God the opportunity to show His wonders thru the crucifiction and resurrection.

'Had they but known, they never would have killed the Lord of glory'. So says the apostle.

Please show me scripture that those were the imprisoned spirits Jesus spoke to after He was crucified. 

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14 hours ago, ForHisGlory37 said:

Hello All, I wanted to ask your opinion on what your thoughts concerning these passages:

 

1 Peter 4:6 King James Version (KJV)

For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

 

 

14 hours ago, ForHisGlory37 said:

1 Corinthians 5:5 King James Version (KJV)

To deliver such an one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.

 

14 hours ago, ForHisGlory37 said:

Why did Jesus preach to them that were already dead?

What does it mean "to live according to God in the spirit"?

What does it mean that the "spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus?"

 

14 hours ago, ForHisGlory37 said:

What are your thoughts as to the meaning of these passages?  Is there hope for those who are dead? 

Jesus when he died he descended to the place of the dead...

It's not science to understand this....for we say the same thing the prophetic scriptures say, and we have the testimony of Jesus Christ and the disciples who spent a lot time with Jesus after the resurrection...

THAT'S WHY WE SAY "JESUS WAS RAISED FROM THE DEAD....

There is a lot of scriptures in the prophetic and the New Testament...

If you need help, no problem, try to find the scriptures on your own...so you learn how to study....

JESUS DIED FOR ALL...

you understand this...you are bless...

THERE IS ONLY ONE SAVIOR...HIS NAME IS JESUS...

The Judge according to the Faith in him, and the works of everyone from the first man...not only during their living...but also at the time of their death....are they in the faith of Jesus Christ...in the simplest of faiths...that Jesus died for the forgiveness of their sins....

Is their any particular question...because you  asking about those who have died...

No one appears before Jesus Christ, unless he has the fair opportunity to know about him and his Gospel that he died for the forgiveness of our sins....he was punished for the sins of the whole world...those who had died before him...those who lived and those to come...

We are within those to come...born about two thousand years after his death...

Jesus commission his disciples to preach the Gospel to all...

By default it includes everyone who believes in him...we give the faith to our children....and the everyone else who goes beyond family.....

The disciples to the living.....because not any of the believers will ever descent to the dead to give the Gospel to them...because they go to Heaven ...to Jesus ...that's where is their inheritance....

The mission to preach the Gospel to the dead it was given to Jesus Christ...

What else?

It's not our works that make Jesus agree...because he expects that...and he turns the other cheek...that is asking us and give us the time the due time to repent...

It is our not responding to his call to us to give us our repentance...

He will never tell us not to believe in him...even if our the worst example for a believer....he had expected that before he died...he had to full-proof every believer, to redeemed every believer with the highest commodity with his blood...

We are looked upon as we really are....nothing is hidden....but also we as believers in Jesus Christ we are filtered through his blood...

The blood of Jesus is in front of us just like the way the Priest in the old Testament...wrote the names of the twelve tribes on the altar....and then splashes the blood of the Atonment on the altar on top of the names of the tribes....the only thing that can be seen is the blood that covered the twelve tribes...

You see the tribes with the qualities of the blood of the Atonement...

That's why they needed to have a lamb without faults...

WE HAVE JESUS....

 

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17 hours ago, ForHisGlory37 said:

Hello All, I wanted to ask your opinion on what your thoughts concerning these passages:

 

1 Peter 4:6 King James Version (KJV)

For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

 

1 Corinthians 5:5 King James Version (KJV)

To deliver such an one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.

 

Why did Jesus preach to them that were already dead?

What does it mean "to live according to God in the spirit"?

What does it mean that the "spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus?"

 

What are your thoughts as to the meaning of these passages?  Is there hope for those who are dead? 

Ephesians 4:8Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men.

"4. Of Him it is said, He ascended up on high, He led captivity captive, He gave gifts unto men. What is, He led captivity captive? He conquered death. What is, He led captivity captive? The devil was the author of death, and the devil was himself by the Death of Christ led captive. He ascended up on high. What do we know higher than heaven? Visibly and before the eyes of His disciples He ascended into heaven. This we know, this we believe, this we confess. He gave gifts unto men. What gifts? The Holy Spirit. He who gives such a Gift, what is He Himself? For great is God's mercy; He gives a Gift equal to Himself; for His Gift is the Holy Spirit, and the Whole Trinity, Father and Son and Holy Spirit, is One God. What has the Holy Spirit brought us? Hear the Apostle; The love of God, says he, has been shed abroad in our hearts. Whence, you beggar, has the love of God been shed abroad in your heart? How, or wherein has the love of God been shed abroad in the heart of man? We have, says he, this treasure in earthen vessels. Why in earthen vessels? That the excellency of the power may be of God? Finally, when he had said, The love of God has been shed abroad in our hearts; that no man might think that he has this love of God of himself, he added immediately, By the Holy Spirit, who has been given to us. Therefore, that you may love God, let God dwell in you, and love Himself in you, that is, to His love let Him move you, enkindle, enlighten, arouse you."  http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/160378.htm

 

"

Who shall give account, he says, 1 Peter 4:5 to Him who is ready to judge the quick and the dead.

These are trained through previous judgments. Therefore he adds, For this cause was the Gospel preached also to the dead — to us, namely, who were at one time unbelievers. That they might be judged according to men, he says, in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit. Because, that is, they have fallen away from faith; while they are still in the flesh they are judged according to preceding judgments, that they might repent. Accordingly, he also adds, saying, That they might live according to God in the spirit. So Paul also; for he, too, states something of this nature when he says, Whom I have delivered to Satan, that he might live in the spirit; 1 Corinthians 5:5 that is, as good stewards of the manifold grace of God. Similarly also Paul says, Variously, and in many ways, God of old spoke to our fathers. Hebrews 1:1

Rejoice, it is said, that you are partakers in the sufferings of Christ: that is, if you are righteous, you suffer for righteousness' sake, as Christ suffered for righteousness. Happy are you, for the Spirit of God, who is the Spirit of His glory and virtue, rests on you. This possessive His signifies also an an angelic spirit: inasmuch as the glory of God those are, through whom, according to faith and righteousness, He is glorified, to honourable glory, according to the advancement of the saints who are brought in. The Spirit of God on us, may be thus understood; that is, who through faith comes on the soul, like a gracefulness of mind and beauty of soul."  http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0211.htm

"2. After having said that Christ was put to death in the flesh, and quickened in the spirit, the apostle immediately went on to say: in which also He went and preached unto the spirits in prison; which sometime were unbelieving, when once the long-suffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water; thereafter he added the words: which baptism also now by a like figure has saved you. 1 Peter 3:18-21 This, therefore, is felt by me to be difficult. If the Lord when He died preached in hell to spirits in prison, why were those who continued unbelieving while the ark was a preparing the only ones counted worthy of this favour, namely, the Lord's descending into hell? For in the ages between the time of Noah and the passion of Christ, there died many thousands of so many nations whom He might have found in hell. I do not, of course, speak here of those who in that period of time had believed in God, as, e.g. the prophets and patriarchs of Abraham's line, or, going farther back, Noah himself and his house, who had been saved by water (excepting perhaps the one son, who afterwards was rejected), and, in addition to these, all others outside of the posterity of Jacob who were believers in God, such as Job, the citizens of Nineveh, and any others, whether mentioned in Scripture or existing unknown to us in the vast human family at any time. I speak only of those many thousands of men who, ignorant of God and devoted to the worship of devils or of idols, had passed out of this life from the time of Noah to the passion of Christ. How was it that Christ, finding these in hell, did not preach to them, but preached only to those who were unbelieving in the days of Noah when the ark was a preparing? Or if he preached to all, why has Peter mentioned only these, and passed over the innumerable multitude of others?"  http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/1102164.htm

 

 

 

 

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18 hours ago, ForHisGlory37 said:

Hello All, I wanted to ask your opinion on what your thoughts concerning these passages:

 

1 Peter 4:6 King James Version (KJV)

For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

 

1 Corinthians 5:5 King James Version (KJV)

To deliver such an one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.

 

Why did Jesus preach to them that were already dead?

What does it mean "to live according to God in the spirit"?

What does it mean that the "spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus?"

 

What are your thoughts as to the meaning of these passages?  Is there hope for those who are dead? 

"

Chapter 13

They who have committed a sin unto death are not to be abandoned, but subjected to penance, according to St. Paul. Explanation of the phrase Deliver unto Satan. Satan can afflict the body, but these afflictions bring spiritual profit, showing the power of God, Who thus turns Satan's devices against himself.

59. Lastly, Paul teaches us that we must not abandon those who have committed a sin unto death, but that we must rather coerce them with the bread of tears and tears to drink, yet so that their sorrow itself be moderated. For this is the meaning of the passage: You have given them to drink in large measure, that their sorrow itself should have its measure, lest perchance he who is doing penance should be consumed by overmuch sorrow, as was said to the Corinthians: What will you? Shall I come to you with a rod, or in love and a spirit of meekness? 1 Corinthians 4:21 But even the rod is not severe, since he had read: You shall beat him indeed with the rod, but shall deliver his soul from death. Proverbs 23:13

60. What the Apostle means by the rod is shown by his invective against fornication, his denunciation of incest, his reprehension of pride, because they were puffed up who ought rather to be mourning, and lastly, his sentence on the guilty person, that he should be excluded from communion, and delivered to the adversary, not for the destruction of the soul but of the flesh. For as the Lord did not give power to Satan over the soul of holy Job, but allowed him to afflict his body, Job 2:6 so here, too, the sinner is delivered to Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the serpent might lick the dust Micah 7:17 of his flesh, but not hurt his soul.

61. Let, then, our flesh die to lusts, let it be captive, let it be subdued, and not war against the law of our mind, but die in subjection to a good service, as in Paul, who buffeted his body that he might bring it into subjection, in order that his preaching might become more approved, if the law of his flesh agreed and was consonant with the law of his flesh. For the flesh dies when its wisdom passes over into the spirit, so that it no longer has a taste for the things of the flesh, but for the things of the spirit. Would that I might see my flesh growing weak, would that I were not dragged captive into the law of sin, would that I lived not in the flesh, but in the faith of Christ! And so there is greater grace in the infirmity of the body than in its soundness.

62. Having explained Paul's meaning, let us now consider the words themselves, in what sense he said that he had delivered him to Satan for the destruction of the flesh, for the devil it is who tries us. For he brings ailments on each of our limbs, and sickness on our whole bodies. And then, too, he smote holy Job with evil sores from the feet to the head, because he had received the power of destroying his flesh, when God said: Behold, I give him up unto you, only preserve his life. Job 2:6 This the Apostle took up in the same words, giving up this man to Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that his spirit might be saved in the day of our Lord Jesus Christ. 1 Corinthians 5:5

63. Great is the power, great is the gift, which commands the devil to destroy himself. For he destroys himself when he makes the man whom he is seeking to overthrow by temptation stronger instead of weak, because while he is weakening the body he is strengthening his soul. For sickness of the body restrains sin, but luxury sets on fire the sin of the flesh.

64. The devil is then deceived so as to wound himself with his own bite, and to arm against himself him whom he thought to weaken. So he armed holy Job the more after he wounded him, who, with his whole body covered with sores, endured indeed the bite of the devil, but felt not his poison. And so it is well said of him, You shall draw out the dragon with an hook, you will play with him as with a bird, you shall bind him as a boy does a sparrow, you shall lay your hand upon him.

65. You see how he is mocked by Paul, so that, like the child in prophecy, he lays his hand on the hole of the asp, and the serpent injures him not; he draws him out of his hiding-places, and makes of his venom a spiritual antidote, so that what is venom becomes a medicine, the venom serves to the destruction of the flesh, it becomes medicine to the healing of the spirit. For that which hurts the body benefits the spirit."  http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/34061.htm

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18 hours ago, ForHisGlory37 said:

Hello All, I wanted to ask your opinion on what your thoughts concerning these passages:

 

1 Peter 4:6 King James Version (KJV)

For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

 

1 Corinthians 5:5 King James Version (KJV)

To deliver such an one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.

 

Why did Jesus preach to them that were already dead?

What does it mean "to live according to God in the spirit"?

What does it mean that the "spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus?"

 

What are your thoughts as to the meaning of these passages?  Is there hope for those who are dead? 

"

For what I also have forgiven, if I have forgiven any thing, for your sakes have I forgiven it. For, this very thing I have done for your sakes, he says. And as when he commanded them to cut him off, he left not with them the power to forgive, saying, I have judged already to deliver such an one unto Satan, 1 Corinthians 5:3-5 and again made them partners in his decision saying, ye being gathered together to deliver him, (ib. 4, 5.) (thereby securing two most important things, viz., that the sentence should be passed; yet not without their consent, lest herein he might seem to hurt them;) and neither himself alone pronounces it, lest they should consider him self-willed, and themselves to be overlooked, nor yet leaves all to them, lest when possessed of the power they should deal treacherously with the offender by unseasonably forgiving him: so also does he here, saying, 'I have already forgiven, who in the former Epistle had already judged.' Then lest they should be hurt, as though overlooked, he adds, for your sakes. What then? Did he for men's sake pardon? No; for on this account he added, In the person of Christ.

What is in the person of Christ? Either he means accor"  http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/220204.htm

"

Whom I delivered to Satan, that they might be taught not to blaspheme! Thus it is blasphemy to search into divine things by our own reasonings. For what have human reasonings in common with them? But how does Satan instruct them not to blaspheme? Can he instruct others, who has not yet taught himself, but is a blasphemer still? It is not that he should instruct, but that they should be instructed. It is not he that does it, though such is the result. As elsewhere he says in the case of the fornicator: To deliver such an one to Satan for the destruction of the flesh. Not that he may save the body, but that the spirit may be saved. 1 Corinthians 5:5 Therefore it is spoken impersonally. How then is this effected? As executioners, though themselves laden with numberless crimes, are made the correctors of others; so it is here with the evil spirit. But why did you not punish them yourself, as you did that Bar-Jesus, and as Peter did Ananias, instead of delivering them to Satan? It was not that they might be punished, but that they might be instructed. For that he had the power appears from other passages, What will you? Shall I come unto you with a rod? 1 Corinthians 4:21 And again, Lest I should use sharpness, according to the power which the Lord has given me to edification, and not to destruction. 2 Corinthians 13:10 Why did he then call upon Satan to punish them? That the disgrace might be greater, as the severity and the punishment was more striking. Or rather, they themselves chastised those who did not yet believe, but those who turned aside, they delivered to Satan. Why then did Peter punish Ananias? Because while he was tempting the Holy Ghost, he was still an unbeliever. That the unbelieving therefore might learn that they could not escape, they themselves inflicted punishment upon them; but those who had learned this, yet afterwards turned aside, they delivered to Satan; showing that they were sustained not by their own power, but by their care for them; and as many as were lifted up into arrogance were delivered to him. For as kings with their own hands slay their enemies, but deliver their subjects to executioners for punishment, so it is in this case. And these acts were done to show the authority committed to the Apostles. Nor was it a slight power, to be able thus to subject the devil to their commands. For this shows that he served and obeyed them even against his will, and this was no little proof of the power of grace. And listen how he delivered them: When you are gathered together, and my spirit, with the power of our Lord Jesus Christ, to deliver such an one unto Satan. 1 Corinthians 5:4 He was then immediately expelled from the common assembly, he was separated from the fold, he became deserted and destitute; he was delivered to the wolf. For as the cloud designated the camp of the Hebrews, so the Spirit distinguished the Church. If any one therefore was without, he was consumed, and it was by the judgment of the Apostles that he was cast out of the pale. So also the Lord delivered Judas to Satan. For immediately after the sop Satan entered into him. John 13:27 Or this may be said; that those whom they wished to amend, they did not themselves punish, but reserved their punishments for those who were incorrigible. Or otherwise, that they were the more dreaded for delivering them up to others. Job also was delivered to Satan, but not for his sins, but for fuller proof of his worth.

Many such instances still occur. For since the Priests cannot know who are sinners, and unworthy partakers of the holy Mysteries, God often in this way delivers them to Satan. For when diseases, and attacks, and sorrows, and calamities, and the like occur, it is on this account that they are inflicted. This is shown by Paul. For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep. 1 Corinthians 11:30 But how? Says one, when we approach but once a year! But this is indeed the evil, that you determine the worthiness of your approach, not by the purity of your minds, but by the interval of time. "  http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/230605.htm

 

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18 hours ago, ForHisGlory37 said:

Hello All, I wanted to ask your opinion on what your thoughts concerning these passages:

 

1 Peter 4:6 King James Version (KJV)

For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

 

1 Corinthians 5:5 King James Version (KJV)

To deliver such an one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.

 

Why did Jesus preach to them that were already dead?

What does it mean "to live according to God in the spirit"?

What does it mean that the "spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus?"

 

What are your thoughts as to the meaning of these passages?  Is there hope for those who are dead? 

"Some, however, read thus, Him that has so wrought this thing in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, and putting a stop there or a break, then subjoin what follows, saying, When you are gathered together and my spirit to deliver such an one unto Satan: and they assert that the sense of this reading is as follows, Him that has done this thing in the Name of Christ, says St. Paul, deliver ye unto Satan; that is, him that has done insult unto the Name of Christ, him that, after he had become a believer and was called after that appellation, has dared to do such things, deliver ye unto Satan. But to me the former exposition (ἐκδοσις . It seems to mean enunciation.) appears the truer.

...

And he said not, Give up such an one to Satan, but deliver; opening unto him the doors of repentance, and delivering up such an one as it were to a schoolmaster. And again it is, such an one: he no where can endure to make mention of his name.

For the destruction of the flesh. As was done in the case of the blessed Job, but not upon the same ground. For in that case it was for brighter crowns, but here for loosing of sins; that he might scourge him with a grievous sore or some other disease. True it is that elsewhere he says, Of the Lord are we judged, 1 Corinthians 11:32 when we suffer these things. But here, desirous of making them feel it more severely, he delivers up unto Satan. And so this too which God had determined ensued, that the man's flesh was chastised. For because inordinate eating and carnal luxuriousness are the parents of desires, it is the flesh which he chastises.

 

 

"   http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/220115.htm

 

 

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18 hours ago, ForHisGlory37 said:

Hello All, I wanted to ask your opinion on what your thoughts concerning these passages:

 

1 Peter 4:6 King James Version (KJV)

For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

 

1 Corinthians 5:5 King James Version (KJV)

To deliver such an one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.

 

Why did Jesus preach to them that were already dead?

What does it mean "to live according to God in the spirit"?

What does it mean that the "spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus?"

 

What are your thoughts as to the meaning of these passages?  Is there hope for those who are dead? 

Now my short answers:

On the two texts in Peter the choices are:

1.   Jesus preached to the unsaved through Noah while he was building the arch.   least likely interpretation.

2.  Jesus preached to the unsaved in the grave and they may have gotten saved.   I would not depend on this.

3.  Jesus announced his victory on the Cross to those in paradise who then were raised from the dead with him.

Matthew 27:51-53
[51] And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in two from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent; [52] And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose, [53] And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared to many.

Sometime after that Jesus lead them to Heaven where paradise was then moved to.

Luke 23:43And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, Today shalt thou be with me in paradise.

Luke 16:19-31 King James Version (KJV)

19 There was a certain rich man, which was clothed in purple and fine linen, and fared sumptuously every day:

20 And there was a certain beggar named Lazarus, which was laid at his gate, full of sores,

21 And desiring to be fed with the crumbs which fell from the rich man's table: moreover the dogs came and licked his sores.

22 And it came to pass, that the beggar died, and was carried by the angels into Abraham's bosom: the rich man also died, and was buried;

23 And in hell he lift up his eyes, being in torments, and seeth Abraham afar off, and Lazarus in his bosom.

24 And he cried and said, Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus, that he may dip the tip of his finger in water, and cool my tongue; for I am tormented in this flame.

25 But Abraham said, Son, remember that thou in thy lifetime receivedst thy good things, and likewise Lazarus evil things: but now he is comforted, and thou art tormented.

26 And beside all this, between us and you there is a great gulf fixed: so that they which would pass from hence to you cannot; neither can they pass to us, that would come from thence.

27 Then he said, I pray thee therefore, father, that thou wouldest send him to my father's house:

28 For I have five brethren; that he may testify unto them, lest they also come into this place of torment.

29 Abraham saith unto him, They have Moses and the prophets; let them hear them.

30 And he said, Nay, father Abraham: but if one went unto them from the dead, they will repent.

31 And he said unto him, If they hear not Moses and the prophets, neither will they be persuaded, though one rose from the dead.

The above two texts shows that before the Resurrection of Jesus paradise was in the grave.   The basic belief back then was that there were two places in the grave.   One for the Righteous and the other for those who did not figure it all out to follow God. 

The two texts below shows that Paradise was in Heaven after the Resurrection of Jesus.   The transition being Eph 4:8
 
2 Corinthians 12:4How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter.
 
Revelation 2:7He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; To him that overcometh will I give to eat of the tree of life, which is in the midst of the paradise of God.

 

 

 

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