Daniel chapter 1 - Why Hebrew?

[Charlie744]

20 minutes ago, kingdombrat said:

Since we are discussing Major Prophets here (Daniel) and the Languages used in their writing.   The transition from Hebrew to Aramaic doesn't really concern me as much as Isaiah's Hebrew/Aramaic texts having Latin Vulgate/Latin that wasn't in existence until 700 BC, or around 50 to 90 years after Isaiah wrote his own literature.

 

But I am curious, do you believe there's a physical/spiritual Reason behind Daniel's transition from Hebrew to Aramaic? 

I don’t know what you mean by “physical” reason... I need your help with this.

I don’t think I see a spiritual reason... it does seem to tie itself directly to the audience it is meant to serve.

How do you see this? Thanks, Charlie 

[Guest kingdombrat]

1 hour ago, Charlie744 said:

I don’t know what you mean by “physical” reason... I need your help with this.

I don’t think I see a spiritual reason... it does seem to tie itself directly to the audience it is meant to serve.

How do you see this? Thanks, Charlie 

There are strong viewpoints claiming that Christ and His Disciples were fluent in Aramaic, which Linguist consider to be basic short hand for the Ancient Hebrew Language.   So maybe the Hebrew Language kicking off Daniel relates to the [Old] ways [Old Testament].   But when Daniel's writing begins to be more centered around unfulfilled Prophecy, connected to the coming Messiah, it changed to the Language we believe the Messiah spoke while on Earth.

Edited May 21, 2021 by kingdombrat

[Charlie744]

8 minutes ago, kingdombrat said:

There are strong viewpoints claiming that Christ and His Disciples were fluent in Aramaic, which Linguist consider to be basic short hand for the Ancient Hebrew Language.   So maybe the Hebrew Language kicking off Daniel relates to the [Old] ways [Old Testament].   But when Daniel's writing begins to be more centered around unfulfilled Prophecy, connected to the coming Messiah, it changed to the Language we believe the Messiah spoke while on Earth.

Unless I am mistaken.... which happens all too frequently, the prophetic chapters - the latter ones are in Hebrew while the historical are in Aramaic. Yes, I have read the two languages are similar.

Even though the prophetic chapters in Daniel are in Hebrew the Jews before and around the coming Messiah failed to see Him in Daniel.  Even today they do not see Him in Daniel  - along with many Christians as well.

I think I see Daniel being captive in a pagan world and bringing the One True God to them. He is in their world but not of their world. Despite all the miracles that take place they continue paganism. The Aramaic chapters may reflect God's desire to make Himself known to the world - no language barrier, no change to their culture, way of life, etc. But they ignore what Daniel is / has brought to their world. At some point, God says, "Enough" and moves on. Daniel's people will now be released back to Jerusalem and now His prophetic message will be written in Hebrew for their consumption --- now it will be their chance to accept Him. 

Look forward to your thoughts, Charlie

[Guest kingdombrat]

3 hours ago, Charlie744 said:

Unless I am mistaken.... which happens all too frequently, the prophetic chapters - the latter ones are in Hebrew while the historical are in Aramaic. Yes, I have read the two languages are similar.

Even though the prophetic chapters in Daniel are in Hebrew the Jews before and around the coming Messiah failed to see Him in Daniel.  Even today they do not see Him in Daniel  - along with many Christians as well.

I think I see Daniel being captive in a pagan world and bringing the One True God to them. He is in their world but not of their world. Despite all the miracles that take place they continue paganism. The Aramaic chapters may reflect God's desire to make Himself known to the world - no language barrier, no change to their culture, way of life, etc. But they ignore what Daniel is / has brought to their world. At some point, God says, "Enough" and moves on. Daniel's people will now be released back to Jerusalem and now His prophetic message will be written in Hebrew for their consumption --- now it will be their chance to accept Him. 

Look forward to your thoughts, Charlie

I thought you stated the first part of Daniel was Hebrew and then switched to Aramaic.   I understood this from your first post:

***

I would like to know your thoughts on why Daniel decided to write chapter 1:1 - 2:4 in Hebrew instead of Aramaic... As you know, from chapter 2:5 through chapter 7 is written in Aramaic while the remaining five chapters are in Hebrew.

I greatly appreciate your thoughts on this.... Charlie

***

 

Either way, maybe we reverse my last post and apply the same meaning.

[Charlie744]

1 hour ago, kingdombrat said:

I thought you stated the first part of Daniel was Hebrew and then switched to Aramaic.   I understood this from your first post:

***

I would like to know your thoughts on why Daniel decided to write chapter 1:1 - 2:4 in Hebrew instead of Aramaic... As you know, from chapter 2:5 through chapter 7 is written in Aramaic while the remaining five chapters are in Hebrew.

I greatly appreciate your thoughts on this.... Charlie

***

 

Either way, maybe we reverse my last post and apply the same meaning.

 

Here is the original post....

I would like to know your thoughts on why Daniel decided to write chapter 1:1 - 2:4 in Hebrew instead of Aramaic... As you know, from chapter 2:5 through chapter 7 is written in Aramaic while the remaining five chapters are in Hebrew.

............perhaps the way I wrote it was confusing. But I agree with you that they seem to follow the different audiences. But much of the prophetic chapters written in Hebrew are meant to speak to the generation waiting for the coming Messiah.... they did not see Him coming from their readings in Daniel, Isaiah, or any other of the prophets.

Charlie

 

[Leonardo Von]

On 5/19/2021 at 7:48 PM, Charlie744 said:

I would like to know your thoughts on why Daniel decided to write chapter 1:1 - 2:4 in Hebrew instead of Aramaic... As you know, from chapter 2:5 through chapter 7 is written in Aramaic while the remaining five chapters are in Hebrew.

I greatly appreciate your thoughts on this.... Charlie

 

How can we know that this is truth?

[Charlie744]

35 minutes ago, Leonardo Von said:

How can we know that this is truth?

There is only one answer to that question- if ANY part of the Bible is in error then throw the entire book of 66 out- worthless!!!!

If you believe all and every letter of the Bible is written by God through the many men who wrote those 66 books then EVERYTHING in it could is from Him and can not be wrong!!

It really is that simple. Thank you, Charlie 

[Leonardo Von]

 

8 minutes ago, Charlie744 said:

There is only one answer to that question- if ANY part of the Bible is in error then throw the entire book of 66 out- worthless!!!!

If you believe all and every letter of the Bible is written by God through the many men who wrote those 66 books then EVERYTHING in it could is from Him and can not be wrong!!

It really is that simple. Thank you, Charlie 

What I meant is: How can we know that what it was said below is truth?

 

On 5/19/2021 at 7:48 PM, Charlie744 said:

I would like to know your thoughts on why Daniel decided to write chapter 1:1 - 2:4 in Hebrew instead of Aramaic... As you know, from chapter 2:5 through chapter 7 is written in Aramaic while the remaining five chapters are in Hebrew.

 

Edited July 8, 2021 by Leonardo Von

[Charlie744]

1 minute ago, Leonardo Von said:

 

What I meant is; How can we know that what it was said below is truth:

 

?????????  You need to explain what you are asking...