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AdHoc - Regarding, "There is NO rapture for the Jews.


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Posted (edited)

AdHoc,

I would like to get some clarification for this statement that you made in another thread:

"It is for those "who SEE" it and must flee. That is, those who live in and around Jerusalem. The whole context is about things Jewish, and Christ on appears to Israel AFTER the Great Tribulation - or Jacob's Trouble. There is NO Rapture for the Jews.

I agree with most of the things that I see you have posted, regarding the rapture of the Church and other events. Your posts are well supported with scripture and well thought out. But as to the statement that there is NO Rapture for the Jews, I think it is incorrect. 

Regarding these verses in Matthew, do you see this as the time that Jesus returns with His armies from heaven and puts his feet on the Mount of Olives and sets up his kingdom on earth? If not, what do you think is happening?

Matthew 24

29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:

30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.

31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.

Edited by The Light

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Posted
27 minutes ago, The Light said:

AdHoc,

I would like to get some clarification for this statement that you made in another thread:

"It is for those "who SEE" it and must flee. That is, those who live in and around Jerusalem. The whole context is about things Jewish, and Christ on appears to Israel AFTER the Great Tribulation - or Jacob's Trouble. There is NO Rapture for the Jews.

I agree with most of the things that I see you have posted, regarding the rapture of the Church and other events. Your posts are well supported with scripture and well thought out. But as to the statement that there is NO Rapture for the Jews, I think it is incorrect. 

Regarding these verses in Matthew, do you see this as the time that Jesus returns with His armies from heaven and puts his feet on the Mount of Olives and sets up his kingdom on earth? If not, what do you think is happening?

Matthew 24

29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:

30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.

31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.

Thank you for your very courteous objection. I hope I have understood your question/objection. You believe that there is a rapture for the Jews? This is what I will answer, and if I've missed your point, I'll try again.

To Abraham are promised THREE seeds; (i) Israel - as the sand of the sea-shore, (ii) the Church - as the stars of heaven, and (iii) THE Seed - Jesus Christ. When our Lord started His ministry His call was for Israel to repent for the Kingdom was at hand. Up until Matthew 12, our Lord Jesus consistently offered the Kingdom of Heaven to Israel. But by the end of Chapter 12, when Israel had called Him an Imposter and emissary of Beelzebub - attributing the works of the Holy Spirit to the Devil, our Lord Jesus forsakes Israel and owns to a new company of men and women - the Church. He (i) revokes fleshly relationships, even with His mother and brothers, He owns the disciples as His "brethren", he "leaves the House (Israel), preaches from a boat (the sea is the nations) and speaks in parables (so that only the Church understands). He then retires to another "House" where the Company is only Himself and His disciples (end of Matthew 12 to end of 13). He then, officially rips the Kingdom from Israel in Matthew 21:43.

Added to this, anybody who aspires to the Kingdom must be "born anew" (lit. Gk. - Jn.3:3-6). And since this is only had by faith (Jn.1:12-13), Israel are effectively cut out of the Kingdom. But John 3:3-6 is equally corrected translated by "born from above". Added to this, those Hebrews who embraced Christ are called "OF the heavenly calling". Since it is the "Kingdom (out) OF Heaven", it needs a "heavenly calling", a birth from above, must have glory as stars (1st Cor.15) and be heavenly in nature. This Company of men and women "as the stars" are those who are now eligible to rule in the Kingdom that proceeds out of heaven. And so the "armies of heaven" are those who have these traits.

Conversely, Israel, having refused and denied their Messiah cannot claim His efficacy (1st Thess.5:9 - the salvation here is in context with the rapture). Added to this, they refuse our Lord Jesus till the end and even embrace the Beast. What God does is to keep a Remnant for His purposes with Israel. They are not raptured, but "sealed" so as not to be killed by the mechanisms of the Great Tribulation (Rev.7:1-8, 9:4). 

Hope I got it right as to your question.


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Posted
8 minutes ago, AdHoc said:

When our Lord started His ministry His call was for Israel to repent for the Kingdom was at hand. Up until Matthew 12, our Lord Jesus consistently offered the Kingdom of Heaven to Israel. But by the end of Chapter 12, when Israel had called Him an Imposter and emissary of Beelzebub - attributing the works of the Holy Spirit to the Devil, our Lord Jesus forsakes Israel and owns to a new company of men and women - the Church. 

I agree fully with your statement. We can see this in the Old Testament.

Hos 9

10 I found Israel like grapes in the wilderness; I saw your fathers as the firstripe in the fig tree at her first time: but they went to Baalpeor, and separated themselves unto that shame; and their abominations were according as they loved.

One thing I would like to point out, if you are unaware, the fig tree has two harvests. God saw the fathers of the Jews as the first ripe in fig tree at her first time, meaning that God saw the fathers of the Jews as the first fruits of the first harvest, but they served another God. They would not be the first harvest, but the Gentiles would be. They will however be, the second harvest.

8 minutes ago, AdHoc said:

Conversely, Israel, having refused and denied their Messiah cannot claim His efficacy (1st Thess.5:9 - the salvation here is in context with the rapture). Added to this, they refuse our Lord Jesus till the end and even embrace the Beast. What God does is to keep a Remnant for His purposes with Israel. They are not raptured, but "sealed" so as not to be killed by the mechanisms of the Great Tribulation (Rev.7:1-8, 9:4). 

Hope I got it right as to your question.

Thanks for your response. You are well schooled in the Word. I'm really trying to pinpoint where we differ, so you did not answer my specific question. I'll ask it again, and thanks.

Regarding these verses in Matthew, do you see this as the time that Jesus returns with His armies from heaven and puts his feet on the Mount of Olives and sets up his kingdom on earth? If not, what do you think is happening?

Matthew 24

29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:

30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.

31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.

 


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Posted
8 minutes ago, Da Puppers said:

Look at Jeremiah 30, where three times it speaks of bringing again the captivity of Jacob,  ala all of Israel, in verses 3,10 and 18.  Verses 19ff concerns what happens after Jacob has returned. 

Jer 30:17-20 KJV 17 For I will restore health unto thee, and I will heal thee of thy wounds, saith the LORD; because they called thee an Outcast, saying, This is Zion, whom no man seeketh after. 18 Thus saith the LORD; Behold, I will bring again the captivity of Jacob's tents, and have mercy on his dwellingplaces; and the city shall be builded upon her own heap, and the palace shall remain after the manner thereof. 19 And out of them shall proceed thanksgiving and the voice of them that make merry: and I will multiply them, and they shall not be few; I will also glorify them, and they shall not be small. 20 Their children also shall be as aforetime, and their congregation shall be established before me, and I will punish all that oppress them.

Verse 19:  "...out of them...I will multiply them,  and they shall not be few; "

Verse 20:  "Their children shall be as aforetime,..."

I think it's a foregone conclusion of Scripture that immortals neither marry, nor have children.   I have to admit that I have been torn and undecided over this issue for a long time.   But with what Jeremiah 30:19,20 says,  I don't see how they will be participating in any Rapture event that conveys immortality. 

Be Blessed 

The PuP 

Thanks for your comment Da Puppers. I don't understand how the verses show there will not be a rapture of the Jews.


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Posted
18 minutes ago, The Light said:

I agree fully with your statement. We can see this in the Old Testament.

Hos 9

10 I found Israel like grapes in the wilderness; I saw your fathers as the firstripe in the fig tree at her first time: but they went to Baalpeor, and separated themselves unto that shame; and their abominations were according as they loved.

One thing I would like to point out, if you are unaware, the fig tree has two harvests. God saw the fathers of the Jews as the first ripe in fig tree at her first time, meaning that God saw the fathers of the Jews as the first fruits of the first harvest, but they served another God. They would not be the first harvest, but the Gentiles would be. They will however be, the second harvest.

Thanks for your response. You are well schooled in the Word. I'm really trying to pinpoint where we differ, so you did not answer my specific question. I'll ask it again, and thanks.

Regarding these verses in Matthew, do you see this as the time that Jesus returns with His armies from heaven and puts his feet on the Mount of Olives and sets up his kingdom on earth? If not, what do you think is happening?

Matthew 24

29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:

30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.

31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.

 

Yes. Matthew 24 and 25 (the so-called Olivet Discourse) has three natural divisions. You will notice the following.

Matthew 24:1-31 deals with all things Jewish. The Temple, false Christs, wars and pestilences during their dispersion among the nations, Judea, Jerusalem, the Sabbath and the Abomination of Desolation, a prophecy to the Jews by a Jew - Daniel. It ends with a sudden and unexpected "revealing" of Jesus from the clouds over Jerusalem.

Matthew 24:32 to Matthew 25:30 does not deal with events. It deals with the moral condition of "servants" and "Virgins". It begins with a parable, showing that it is meant for the Church. All has to do with a "thief" coming unexpectedly for something valuable - the faithful and diligent servant. The "Thief" steals the Overcomers and the House is broken up. They are then judged in the air, in the clouds and it is decided who gets a kingship in the Millennium and who goes into the Wedding Feast.

Having dealt with Israel in the first section, and having dealt with the Church in the second, all that is left is "all Nations" - those who survived the Great Tribulation (about one third of men). Christ judges them on how they treated Jew and/or Christian during the Great Tribulation.

Thus, all three types of People on earth are dealt with at His coming - Israel, gathered from the "four winds", the Church, "gathered by a thief", and the Nations "gathered for judgment".


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Posted
35 minutes ago, Da Puppers said:

Look at Jeremiah 30, where three times it speaks of bringing again the captivity of Jacob,  ala all of Israel, in verses 3,10 and 18.  Verses 19ff concerns what happens after Jacob has returned. 

Jer 30:17-20 KJV 17 For I will restore health unto thee, and I will heal thee of thy wounds, saith the LORD; because they called thee an Outcast, saying, This is Zion, whom no man seeketh after. 18 Thus saith the LORD; Behold, I will bring again the captivity of Jacob's tents, and have mercy on his dwellingplaces; and the city shall be builded upon her own heap, and the palace shall remain after the manner thereof. 19 And out of them shall proceed thanksgiving and the voice of them that make merry: and I will multiply them, and they shall not be few; I will also glorify them, and they shall not be small. 20 Their children also shall be as aforetime, and their congregation shall be established before me, and I will punish all that oppress them.

Verse 19:  "...out of them...I will multiply them,  and they shall not be few; "

Verse 20:  "Their children shall be as aforetime,..."

I think it's a foregone conclusion of Scripture that immortals neither marry, nor have children.   I have to admit that I have been torn and undecided over this issue for a long time.   But with what Jeremiah 30:19,20 says,  I don't see how they will be participating in any Rapture event that conveys immortality. 

Be Blessed 

The PuP 

Quite. Just remember, rapture does not cause the immortality. Rapture is just a means of transport. The change happens;

  1. If you are dead, in resurrection. There you receive a body, but built not the womb, but by the Holy Spirit to heavenly standards (it is a physical body like our Lord's, but made by the Holy Spirit. That is why it is called a"spiritual body" - not because it is spirit in content, but because it was built by the Holy Spirit.
  2. If you are alive at Christ's coming, by an act of the Holy Spirit (1st Cor.15:50-54)

The Church, being like the angels, cannot die, but also cannot marry. It says "marry" because Biblical marriage is not a piece of paper by a judge. Biblical marriage is sexual intercourse. "That which GOD has JOINED ....", and "leave father and mother and cleave, and become ONE FLESH".


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Posted
8 minutes ago, AdHoc said:

Yes. Matthew 24 and 25 (the so-called Olivet Discourse) has three natural divisions. You will notice the following.

Matthew 24:1-31 deals with all things Jewish. The Temple, false Christs, wars and pestilences during their dispersion among the nations, Judea, Jerusalem, the Sabbath and the Abomination of Desolation, a prophecy to the Jews by a Jew - Daniel. It ends with a sudden and unexpected "revealing" of Jesus from the clouds over Jerusalem.

Matthew 24:32 to Matthew 25:30 does not deal with events. It deals with the moral condition of "servants" and "Virgins". It begins with a parable, showing that it is meant for the Church. All has to do with a "thief" coming unexpectedly for something valuable - the faithful and diligent servant. The "Thief" steals the Overcomers and the House is broken up. They are then judged in the air, in the clouds and it is decided who gets a kingship in the Millennium and who goes into the Wedding Feast.

Having dealt with Israel in the first section, and having dealt with the Church in the second, all that is left is "all Nations" - those who survived the Great Tribulation (about one third of men). Christ judges them on how they treated Jew and/or Christian during the Great Tribulation.

Thus, all three types of People on earth are dealt with at His coming - Israel, gathered from the "four winds", the Church, "gathered by a thief", and the Nations "gathered for judgment".

Thanks for your answer and thorough explanation. I was thinking that's what you would say, as you believe in a pretribulation rapture, as do I. And yet, I do not believe that those scriptures are referring to the time that Jesus sets up His kingdom on earth. I believe that those verses are referring to the coming of Jesus at the 6th seal. Try this out.

Matthew 24

29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:

30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.

31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.

Rev 6

12 And I beheld when he had opened the sixth seal, and, lo, there was a great earthquake; and the sun became black as sackcloth of hair, and the moon became as blood;

13 And the stars of heaven fell unto the earth, even as a fig tree casteth her untimely figs, when she is shaken of a mighty wind.

14 And the heaven departed as a scroll when it is rolled together; and every mountain and island were moved out of their places.

15 And the kings of the earth, and the great men, and the rich men, and the chief captains, and the mighty men, and every bondman, and every free man, hid themselves in the dens and in the rocks of the mountains;

16 And said to the mountains and rocks, Fall on us, and hide us from the face of him that sitteth on the throne, and from the wrath of the Lamb:

17 For the great day of his wrath is come; and who shall be able to stand?

Immediately after the tribulation of those days, Jesus comes. But He is not coming to set up His kingdom on earth, He is coming to take the believers from the earth and cast those remaining into the wrath of God. The tribulation and the wrath of God are separate events. We know the Church is already in heaven, before the tribulation of those days begins. So, He is not coming for the Church. He comes for the 12 tribes.

I believe that the verses in Matthew 24 tell you where they happen in the Revelation timeline. Matthew 24:29-31 happens at the 6th seal. Thoughts.


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Posted
33 minutes ago, Da Puppers said:

Do you believe that any raptured soul will continue to fulfill the ability to marry and especially the ability to have children?  It said there in Jeremiah 30, that "out of them" will I multiply them.   "Out of them" refers to those of the whole house of Israel that are brought again from their captivity... those dwelling in their land, serving Jesus the Christ.

Be Blessed 

The PuP 

No, the Word says that there will not be marriages in heaven except to Jesus the bridegroom. But the verses in Jeremiah are referring to the people on earth, so I don't get the correlation.


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Posted
3 hours ago, The Light said:

Thanks for your answer and thorough explanation. I was thinking that's what you would say, as you believe in a pretribulation rapture, as do I. And yet, I do not believe that those scriptures are referring to the time that Jesus sets up His kingdom on earth. I believe that those verses are referring to the coming of Jesus at the 6th seal. Try this out.

Matthew 24

29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:

30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.

31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.

Rev 6

12 And I beheld when he had opened the sixth seal, and, lo, there was a great earthquake; and the sun became black as sackcloth of hair, and the moon became as blood;

13 And the stars of heaven fell unto the earth, even as a fig tree casteth her untimely figs, when she is shaken of a mighty wind.

14 And the heaven departed as a scroll when it is rolled together; and every mountain and island were moved out of their places.

15 And the kings of the earth, and the great men, and the rich men, and the chief captains, and the mighty men, and every bondman, and every free man, hid themselves in the dens and in the rocks of the mountains;

16 And said to the mountains and rocks, Fall on us, and hide us from the face of him that sitteth on the throne, and from the wrath of the Lamb:

17 For the great day of his wrath is come; and who shall be able to stand?

Immediately after the tribulation of those days, Jesus comes. But He is not coming to set up His kingdom on earth, He is coming to take the believers from the earth and cast those remaining into the wrath of God. The tribulation and the wrath of God are separate events. We know the Church is already in heaven, before the tribulation of those days begins. So, He is not coming for the Church. He comes for the 12 tribes.

I believe that the verses in Matthew 24 tell you where they happen in the Revelation timeline. Matthew 24:29-31 happens at the 6th seal. Thoughts.

OK. Your appreciation of the matter is valid. Let see what we agree on and then deal with the difficulties.  I see your connection of Matthew 24 and the sixth seal. I see Matthew 24 and 25 as our Lord answering the three questions in verse 3; (i) when shall these things be, (ii) what is the sign of your coming, and (iii) what is the sign of  the end of the age. Revelation on the other hand is what it says; The "Revealing" of Jesus Christ and the events surrounding this "Revealing". So the two Books will focus on their specialities. Like Matthew 24 starts with 70 AD and a Jewish matter - the Temple. God is very unhappy and His wrath is revealed on Judah. Revelation starts with Jesus, Head of the Church, showing Himself to be very unhappy with the Churches. Matthew 24 & 25 deal with events surrounding Jesus' coming to set up His Kingdom, which is the main theme of the Book (see Matt.1:1). Revelation is a series of events that had its beginning in Romans 1 - the wrath of God revealed "from heaven" against ungodliness.

Both accounts do not follow a strict timeline. rather they deal with events. which are consummating things. For instance, the last four of the seven Churches are promised the coming of Jesus. Yet these Churches do not even exist today and our Lord has not come. This shows that the apostasy is a sickness that will affect all Christians everywhere through the whole age of the Church - giving power to the doctrine that the seven Churches are at the same time moral and historical. And then, after the threatenings and promises to the Church, we suddenly, abruptly, never hear of a Church again in the whole book. But Chapter 4:1 starts with "those things that must be hereafter". That means that Chapter 4 is "after" the coming of the Lord to His Churches. It can be read no other way if the context and grammar are faithfully followed. Thus, Revelation from Chapter 4 to 11 span less than seven years. 

But I ramble. Let us see the difficulty of Matthew 24:28-31 being for the Churches:

  1. The Churches are not the context. Everything Jewish is
  2. Our Lord Jesus does not burst through the clouds to rapture the Church. The Church is "caught away" to Him in still IN the clouds
  3. The Church was never in the "four winds". Israel it was who was scattered to the four winds
  4. The rapture should be a joyous occasion because we are removed from the Great Tribulation. We should be "comforted". But in Matthew 24:30 the "Tribes of the Land MOURN"
  5. The seeing of Messiah and "mourning" is found in the Jewish prophets (Zech.12:10). The Church is not revealed to the prophets of old

But now I will present to you a nice quandary. There are three unequivocal scriptures that promise a pre-tribulation rapture. They are Luke 21:36, 1st Thessalonians 5:9 and Revelation 3:10. One of its types is Noah, and he entered the Ark seven days before it began to rain (yes, I know that we cannot build doctrine with a type, but I mention it as support). But there are at least four scriptures that show Christians going through the Great Tribulation. They are, by default, those who do not Overcome at Philadelphia (Rev.3), those of Revelation 7 who have everything to do with our Lord Jesus and His blood, but still pass through the great tribulation. Those of Revelation 12 who "have the testimony of Jesus Christ", those of Revelation 13:7 who are defeated by the Beast, and those of Revelation 18 who are God's people but dwell in Babylon the Great.

Now tell me; When is the Rapture of the Church? :th_frusty:


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Posted
3 hours ago, Da Puppers said:

Luk 20:27-38 KJV 27 Then came to him certain of the Sadducees, which deny that there is any resurrection; and they asked him, 28 Saying, Master, Moses wrote unto us, If any man's brother die, having a wife, and he die without children, that his brother should take his wife, and raise up seed unto his brother. 29 There were therefore seven brethren: and the first took a wife, and died without children. 30 And the second took her to wife, and he died childless. 31 And the third took her; and in like manner the seven also: and they left no children, and died. 32 Last of all the woman died also. 33 Therefore in the resurrection whose wife of them is she? for seven had her to wife. 34 And Jesus answering said unto them, The children of this world marry, and are given in marriage: 35 But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage: 36 Neither can they die any more: for they are equal unto the angels; and are the children of God, being the children of the resurrection. 37 Now that the dead are raised, even Moses shewed at the bush, when he calleth the Lord the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob. 38 For he is not a God of the dead, but of the living: for all live unto him.

Here the Sadducees acknowledge (rightfully)  the purpose of marriage,  to raise up children,  offspring of men and women.  Because men and women, who have not obtained to the Resurrection,  die,  they reveal the purpose of marriage,  This is what the Scripture means when it says that a man shall cleave to his wife,  that they might be one flesh, to produce children,  after their kind.   So Jesus said that,  those who are resurrected,  neither marry nor are given in marriage BECAUSE God is the God of the living,  and not of the dead. 

The purpose of the rapture,  [those who are caught up] according to 1Thess4 is that we might be "forever with the Lord".

Forever,  means that we will never die.   It means that we have been resurrected.  It means that there is no need of marriage.   It means that we are equal unto the angels .

To be changed from mortal to immortal,  and from corruptible to incorruptible,  means we have been raised to new life.   It means we have been resurrected.   It means....,....,...!  I disagree with your assessment of the purpose of the rapture.   It is not just a transport.   It is a transport into the realm of the eternal. 

Be Blessed 

The PuP 

OK. Your assessment is valid. I appreciate how you see it. Without rebuttal, I will present you with my view;

Marriage is because God said that it is "not good for a man to be alone". He was referring to the Man Jesus, who should have a "companion up to His standard". Ephesians 5;32 says that Christ and the Church are illustrated by human marriage

If Adam had not sinned, human marriage would have been everlasting. Death ends marriage, and death only came because of sin

Children are a secondary issue of marriage, though I grant that it is a very important one

The Greek for "Rapture" is "Harpazo". This word means literally "caught away". The Greek indicates movement, but NOT direction. In Acts Chapter 8 it is correctly translated as Philip was "caught away". Azotes, where he was "caught away" to, is horizontal. I suppose that one can say "caught up" if the context shows this, but in 2nd Corinthians 12 Paul was caught "up" to paradise. According to Matthew 12:40, where our Lord went was "down".

The purpose of rapture is so that those who have believed in Jesus can escape God's wrath. In multiple scriptures the Great Tribulation covers the whole earth. If you are on earth there is no place to hide or escape. Only the clouds offer refuge for the "saved".

Rapture to the clouds is also so our Lord Jesus can start the judgment of men, for "judgment must begin in the house of the Lord". It is noteworthy that the Nations on earth stand before Christ's THRONE ("thronos" - Gk. A fixed and heavy seat). The Church does not appear before the "thronos", but before the "Bema" (Rom.14:10, 2nd Cor.5:10), a traveling throne for when the king, or judge, is on a journey.

Resurrection is necessary because we must die (Heb.9:27). We must die because our bodies are not fit for the Kingdom (1st Cor.15:50-54). We must also be resurrected because according to 1st Cor.6:15 our BODIES are the member of Christ. Death breaks down the Church. That is why our Lord said in Matthew 16, "the Gates of HADES shall not prevail against the Church".

Go well bro.

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