Paul's definition of the word Gentiles

[Desopixi Seilynam]

Paul defines what he means by 'Gentiles' at the end of Romans:

 

"And that the Gentiles might glorify God for His mercy, [Romans 11:17,24,30-32] as it is written;
For this cause will I profess thee among the heathen, and will sing praises to your name. 2 Samuel 22:50"

Romans 15:9

"And again He says; Rejoice, O ye nations, with His people Deuteronomy 32:43"
Romans 15:10

"And again; Praise the Lord all ye nations; and laud him all ye people Psalm 117:1"
Romans 15:11

"And again, Isaiah says; There shall be a root out of Jesse.. to Him shall the Gentiles seek Isaiah 11:10"

Romans 15:12

"Now the God of hope fill you (Gentiles) with all joy and peace in believing,
that ye may abound in hope, through the power of the Holy Ghost."

Romans 15:13

"And I myself also am persuaded of you, my brethren, that ye also are full of goodness,
filled with all knowledge, able to admonish one another"
Romans 15:14

"But I have written the more boldly unto you on some points, [Romans 8:13-14]
as putting you in mind, because of the grace of God that is given to me.
That I (Paul) should be the minister of Jesus Christ to the Gentiles,
ministering the good news of God,
that the offering up of the Gentiles might be acceptable,
being sanctified by the Holy Ghost." [Rom 8:13-14]

Romans 15:15-16

Thereby we can understand clearly that Paul's main audience for the book of Romans is non-Jews.

 

[AdHoc]

33 minutes ago, Desopixi Seilynam said:

Romans 15:15-16

Thereby we can understand clearly that Paul's main audience for the book of Romans is non-Jews

The problem at Rome, or shall I say, the Church at Rome, was that the gospel had gone ahead of Paul and the Holy Spirit had raised up a Church that had no formal teaching. The ex-Romans (Gentiles) and the ex-Jews (of the diaspora) were not meeting together. The reason again was the Law of Moses. You can't blame the Jew really. He has 1,500 years of the Law of Moses, which not only impregnated their culture, but God was serious about it - thus the diaspora.

The Law of Moses demanded certain foods and forbade others, it commanded certain Feasts and tithes, and most of all it commanded that the Jews have no relations with the Gentiles. Paul sets out in Romans to show that BOTH Jew and Gentile were sold under sin and sins and in need of salvation. This he does to show that in matters of salvation, God has included the Gentile. He also shows that while there is certain profit in being a Jew, like already having the word of God and the Covenants, he was in no way superior to the Gentile believer. This takes up to Chapter 5.

Chapter six shows the solution for sin and sins. Death and burial with Christ and a new life in resurrection life. But the jew wold say; "we have the Law". Paul then shows, in Chapter 7, that no man can keep the Law and that it condemns those under it. Chapter 8 is the solution - the Spirit of Christ dwelling IN man and leading and conforming him. But Chapter 8 raises a potentially big problem - for God. Everybody knows that the Jews have refused Christ and the Spirit. What chance do they have? This is a tough question and the honor of God hangs on it. God made Promises to Abraham for possessing the Good Land, but He also made a Covenant with Moses which had them kicked out of the Land. How will Gd solve this if Israel remain in UNBELIEF?

So Paul dedicates three whole Chapters to this question and God's honor. Then, when he has outlined God's solution to Israel in Chapters 9, 10 & 11, he turns back to the Roman Christians and puts into practice the results of his doctrine in Chapters 1 to 8. Chapters 12 to 16 regulate the Church life for the tough situation of one group of saints who came from a pagan background being ONE with another group of men who have the Law ingrained. The "temporary" solution was to give all men their freedom to take or leave certain days and certain food so that they could gather together. I say "temporary" because, as we see from later letters, the Law is abolished for Christians (not Israel) and was not to be used (see Galatians & Colossians).

No doubt there were many more ex-Romans in the Church at Rome, but the letter is directed at both believing Jew as well as believing Gentile.

[Desopixi Seilynam]

4 minutes ago, AdHoc said:

the letter is directed at both believing Jew as well as believing Gentile.

Sure, in a sense it is, but clearly Paul is talking to Gentiles about Jews in 9 10 and 11.
"Brethren, my hearts desire for Israel is that they"    'they'  not his immediate audience.
 

In times past you have not obeyed God, yet now have obtained mercy through their [the Jew's] disobedience

  [ they had Christ killed, but the death and resurrection of Christ is the Gentiles' mercy ]

Even so [the reason why] have these now also not obeyed, that through your mercy they may also obtain mercy.
  [ everyone obtains mercy because of the death and resurrection of Christ; ]

For God has concluded them all to disobedience [to the death of Christ]
that He might have mercy upon all [via the death and resurrection of Christ]

Romans 11:30-32

[AdHoc]

14 hours ago, Desopixi Seilynam said:

Sure, in a sense it is, but clearly Paul is talking to Gentiles about Jews in 9 10 and 11.
"Brethren, my hearts desire for Israel is that they"    'they'  not his immediate audience.
 

In times past you have not obeyed God, yet now have obtained mercy through their [the Jew's] disobedience

  [ they had Christ killed, but the death and resurrection of Christ is the Gentiles' mercy ]

Even so [the reason why] have these now also not obeyed, that through your mercy they may also obtain mercy.
  [ everyone obtains mercy because of the death and resurrection of Christ; ]

For God has concluded them all to disobedience [to the death of Christ]
that He might have mercy upon all [via the death and resurrection of Christ]

Romans 11:30-32

I agree. The Gentiles are always the majority in the Church (except the primitive Church in Judea). But I think that there is another reason for using "they". It was to establish the vast difference between Paul's "brethren according to the FLESH" and Paul's "brethren according to the Spirit". Contemporary Christianity likes to make the distinction between an ex-Jew and an ex-Gentile. But scripture is very adamant about this. It is a NEW CREATURE, and its past is dissolved (2nd Cor.5:17). In the past the seed of men decided position before God, but in the Church it is a NEW BIRTH, not of the womb, but of the Holy Spirit. In this New Man there is "neither Jew nor Greek". This naturally wipes out ethnicity in the Church. A Jew who converts is no longer an Israelite. His passport might say one thing, but in reality and before God he belongs to a much better company So the "they" contrasts Israel with the New Man.

I enjoyed your further comments on mercy. There is almost nobody who sees this. Most of our brethren try to force in a non existent scripture about Israel suddenly turning to Christ at the last moment. But to extend grace and mercy is at God's discretion because Christ died for the "sin and sins of the WORLD" (Jn.1:29, 1st Jn.2:2). God extends mercy to unbelieving Israel based on (i) Covenant, and (ii) the Promises to the prophets (Lk.1:72 etc.).