Did Paul considered certain foods unclean?

[Ovedya]

I am not saying that the OT has not affect or imprtance inthe life of the believer. Not at all. By reading the OT we can see Christ revealed. In fact, one of the first things that the Lord did in resurrection was to open up the OT, revealing Himself in it. I agree with the vision and the interpretation of the unclean animals.

However, what purpose would Paul have had to write that eating unclean foods was okay for the believer if he did not believe it himself? It makes no sense. Did Paul not practice what he preached? What cause did Paul have to write, "I know and am persuaded in the Lord Jesus that there is nothing unclean of iteself, except to him who considers something to be unclean; to that man it is unclean" (Rom. 14:14)? Also, "For the kindgom of God is not eating and drinking, but righteousness and peace and joy in the Holy Spirit." (v. 17).

[Guest yod]

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[Ovedya]

Hmmm...If Paul didn't believe that it made any difference in our spiritual standing, why would he have continued to follow the old law?

[Guest yod]

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[Ovedya]

Nope. For Paul to say on the one hand that it is okay for Gentiles to eat unclean meats, then turn around and refuse to eat unclean meats himself would make him a hypocrite. Furthermore, it nullifies the work of Christ in creating the one new man in HIs death and resurrection. A primary cause of diviosion between the Jew and the Gentile was the eating of unclean foods. You would have me believe that this division was maintained?

[Guest yod]

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[Ovedya]

Right! And since there is no division between the Jew and the Gentile, Paul writes that there was no need for Gentiles to become circumcized in order to prove their faith. You agree that there was a major problem between the Jews and the Gentiles with regard to the keeping of the law. Some Jews refused to fellowship with Gentile believers, and some still insisted that Gentiles must first convert to Judaism before they could be saved and become Christians. Paul combated both of these problems by emphasizing the fact of Christ's death having nullified all of these things. In both cases the Jews were wrong to place such demands upon the Gentile believers. This is why he wrote that it is essentially no big deal to eat things sacrificed to idols. And this is why he wrote that he had such freedom in Christ to eat such things also, so long as it does not become a cause for stumbling or division.

The middle wall of division has been broken down in Christ (Eph. 2:14). There is no longer any division between the Jew and the Gentile, slave and free man, Scythian and barbarian, etc. (Col. 3:11). Christ has made both one. So what is the need for culture, laws and ordinances? You know, if you really examine Colossians 3:11, you will find that all the things that have divided man from God and man from man are covered there: nationality, culture, religion and religious practices, and economic stratification. In the Body of Christ there simply cannot be any of these things.

[Guest Yhudah]

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[Ovedya]

Thanks, Yhudah.

For the record, however, I do not disagree with anyone who choses to observe the Torah, Christian or otherwise. I further do not view this discussion as an argument, just a friendly debate. We may disagree over such things that are not essential to our salvation and still maintain the fellowship in the Body. Grace to you.

[Guest yod]

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