Faith and Works

[Jake for Jesus]

Shiloh wrote to Jake for Jesus:

And you would differ with the Bible as well.

My Response:

Come on, that's the kind of stuff you always say to every body who disagrees with you about any thing. lol

Edited September 29, 2005 by Jake for Jesus

[RGR]

Shiloh wrote:

And you would differ with the Bible as well.

My Response:

Come on, that's the kind of stuff you always say to every body who disagrees with you about any thing. lol

<{POST_SNAPBACK}>

Why don't you drop the attitude with him? All you seem to want to do is follow him around and see how much of a hard time you can give him. And he is probably right, btw, you would take issue with the Bible if it disagreed with your point of view.

[Jake for Jesus]

Fiosh wrote:

I have often prayed, "Forgive me, Father for I have been an idiot". I can almost hear Him say, "But, my child, you are my little idiot".

My Response:

I think we may have all prayed that prayer, except for maybe those who had attended the "I Am Alright!" University! LOL.

[Jake for Jesus]

Shiloh wrote:

The fact remains that Christ was not made sinful on the cross. If He was made sinful, then He would be unfit to be the sacrifice for sin. He was not dying as a sinner, but as the innocent for the guilty.

My Response:

Your confused. No one is saying Christ was a sinner.

Shiloh wrote:

I am saying that the Bible does not anywhere support the notion of imparted righteousness. It only supports imputed righteousness and as I have demonstrated those are two completely different concepts in Greek.

My Response:

I gave you the Greek word for "impute" and its meaning, and showed you that the word "impute" and "impart" have the same meaning. Also gave my source.

All you have done is to say you disagree.

What I hear you saying is don't confuse me with the facts, my mind is already made up. Please show me in the Greek if you can that those two words don't have the same meaning?

Edited September 29, 2005 by Jake for Jesus

[Guest shiloh357]

Shiloh wrote:

The fact remains that Christ was not made sinful on the cross. If He was made sinful, then He would be unfit to be the sacrifice for sin. He was not dying as a sinner, but as the innocent for the guilty.

My Response:

Your confused. No one is saying Christ was a sinner.

No Jake the confusion lies with you. I said that Christ was not made sin in the absolute sense, (meaning that Christ did not become sinful)

Remember this?

Shiloh wrote:

It is the same with our sin being imputed to Jesus on the cross. He was not made sinful in the absolute sense.

My Response:

I beg to differ with you about that too.

I said that Christ was not made sin in the absolute sense, and you "begged to differ." By saying that Christ was made sinful in the absolute sense means that he was made a sinner, and that is simply not true. The sin of the world was imputed to Christ, not imparted to Him.

Shiloh wrote:

I am saying that the Bible does not anywhere support the notion of imparted righteousness. It only supports imputed righteousness and as I have demonstrated those are two completely different concepts in Greek.

My Response:

I gave you the Greek word for "impute" and its meaning, and showed you that the word "impute" and "impart" have the same meaning. Also gave my source.

All you have done is to say you disagree.

What I hear you saying is don't confuse me with the facts, my mind is already made up. Please show me in the Greek if you can that those two words don't have the same meaning?

I already showed you that they were two different words. Evidently you just skim over posts without reading them, so I will explain it you again.

You gave me the Greek word for impart, and then claimed it was the same for impute, and you did so without corroboration.

Impart is metadidōmi It means to give or share

Impute is logizomai It means to estimate, to reckon

And just so we are clear, the word "reckon," as a verb, means to charge or credit to an account.

They are two completely different words that carry two entirely different meanings. You can look them up in Strongs or any other Greek resource if you like.

[Jake for Jesus]

Shiloh wrote:

"Impart" is "metadidōmi. It means to give or share.

My Response:

For "Impart", "metadidomi" See Strong's #3330.

It means give, share, impart, distibute, grant.

[Jake for Jesus]

Shiloh ---- how do you come to your conclusion?

Romans 5:9 says, Much more then, having now been justified by His blood, we shall saved from wrath through Him.

Does it not say, "having now been justified?

So when are we justified?

That verse says now!

Edited September 30, 2005 by Jake for Jesus

[Guest shiloh357]

Shiloh wrote:

"Impart" is "metadidōmi.  It means to give or share.

My Response:

For "Impart", "metadidomi" See Strong's #3330.

It means give, share, impart, distibute, grant.

<{POST_SNAPBACK}>

Which is different from the meaning of impute which is found in Strong's #3049

Please stop trying to make impart and impute mean the same thing. They don't.

[Guest shiloh357]

Shiloh ---- how do you come to your conclusion?

Romans 5:15-19 says, Much more then, having now been justified by His blood, we shall saved from wrath through Him.

Does it not say, having now been justified?

So when are we justified?

That verse says now!

<{POST_SNAPBACK}>

We are now justified, we are now declared righteous. That is the meaning justified in the Greek. It does not mean we are now made righteous.

[Jake for Jesus]

Shiloh our posts must have crossed. Read my last post, and after you have done so tell me from where are you getting this word "impute" from?

Edited September 30, 2005 by Jake for Jesus