Puzzled About Bishop's Wives

[Openly Curious]

Hi all,

I have a question concerning this passage below

1 Timothy 3:1-7--"This is a true saying, If a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work. A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife vigilant sober of good behaviour given to hospitality apt to teach. Not given to wine no striker not greedy of filthy lucre but patient not a brawler not covetous. One that ruleth well his own house having his children in subjection with all gravity. (For if a man know not how to rule his own house how shall he take care of the church of God?) Not a novice lest being lifted up with pride he fall into the condemnation of the devil. Moreover he must have a good report of them which are without lest he fall into reproach and the snare of the devil."

I was curious as to what your opinions are according to the above passage of scripture. I know that whenever this passage of scripture is being debated and discussed that the emphasis seems to always be the man who wants to be a bishop. As all the emphasis seems to be that the man desiring this office "should be the husband of "One" wife In other words he should still be in his very first marrage from the start of it. This part I understand of the text.

But my reflection here is what of the wife in this situation? What if it is the man's first marriage and the wife he has is his first wife that he's ever been married to? But the wife he married has been married and divorced before on her second marriage Is she thus qualified to be a bishop's wife in this case?

I know the qualification are for a man desiring the office of a bishop having one wife but what of the wife being married and divorced before being qualified to be a bishop's wife. Just am very curious about the other side of it is all. Thanks for your responses in advance.

OC

[Smalcald]

I think the other part of that requirement OC was that they didn't want a man who was married to several wives, a polygamist, which was also happening at that time.

I don't know about the wife and her previous marriages. My take would be that it would not matter as the qualifications pertain to the male in this case, but I don't know.

[EricH]

The literal tranlsation is that the Bishop should be a "one woman man". Given that all of the other requirements in this passage are character traiths, it seems that this particular requirement is not limiting the role of the "bishop" to those who have only been marrid once. it is limiting the office to the man whose life and character are characterized by his being devoted to one woman.

[Openly Curious]

Thanks for your input Smalcald and EricH,

It is a interesting but it looks the same way to me that the bishop is not limited to just a wife who has never been married before but instead his devotion should be to "One" wife. So the bishop could be married to a women who has been married and divorce before as long as he has only been married once.

Then that leads me into how people view marriage and divorce in a case like this. Would people look down on the pastor's wife and not accept her in her role because of that.

Would the church not accept her as the pastor's wife because of it and do you think that would make a good example to the flock in this case.

Would be interested in others opinions as I think it is interesting thoughts behind all of this.

OC

[OopsMartin]

The literal tranlsation is that the Bishop should be a "one woman man". Given that all of the other requirements in this passage are character traiths, it seems that this particular requirement is not limiting the role of the "bishop" to those who have only been marrid once. it is limiting the office to the man whose life and character are characterized by his being devoted to one woman.

Exactly!

1. Verse one is addressing

[OopsMartin]

Thanks for your input Smalcald and EricH,

It is a interesting but it looks the same way to me that the bishop is not limited to just a wife who has never been married before but instead his devotion should be to "One" wife. So the bishop could be married to a women who has been married and divorce before as long as he has only been married once.

Then that leads me into how people view marriage and divorce in a case like this. Would people look down on the pastor's wife and not accept her in her role because of that.

Would the church not accept her as the pastor's wife because of it and do you think that would make a good example to the flock in this case.

Would be interested in others opinions as I think it is interesting thoughts behind all of this.

OC

As long as they are both devoted Christians, good examples of Christ's character, and have a good reputation then that should be all there is to say. But human nature is such that we often will find excuses to condemn, judge, and criticize that are not relative at all.

[EricH]

Saints,

The original post was asked in the spirit of trying to understand what husband of one wife meant. Please do not turn this into yet another thread dealing with the women's issue

[tsth]

Thanks for your input Smalcald and EricH,

It is a interesting but it looks the same way to me that the bishop is not limited to just a wife who has never been married before but instead his devotion should be to "One" wife. So the bishop could be married to a women who has been married and divorce before as long as he has only been married once.

Then that leads me into how people view marriage and divorce in a case like this. Would people look down on the pastor's wife and not accept her in her role because of that.

Would the church not accept her as the pastor's wife because of it and do you think that would make a good example to the flock in this case.

Would be interested in others opinions as I think it is interesting thoughts behind all of this.

OC

The question isn't about her being accepted, it becomes about a bishop and adultery. If we want to adhere to the Scriptures, then we need to understand what qualifies a man as an adulterer, (keep in mind I am posting from Scripture), you do with it what you want and don't try to pursuade me, as if (I) wrote the passages, I didn't. I DO understand this will be hard to receive:

Matthew 19:9 I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery."

Matthew 5:32 But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery.

We have to get to the Scriptural understanding of "divorce and adultery" and what the BIBLE REALLY SAYS, rather than what we've been told by men.

Look Here: http://www.worthyboards.com/index.php?show...=66011&st=0

In His Love,

Suzanne

[Openly Curious]

'tsth' post

The question isn't about her being accepted, it becomes about a bishop and adultery. If we want to adhere to the Scriptures, then we need to understand what qualifies a man as an adulterer, (keep in mind I am posting from Scripture), you do with it what you want and don't try to pursuade me, as if (I) wrote the passages, I didn't. I DO understand this will be hard to receive:

Matthew 19:9 I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery."

Matthew 5:32 But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery.

We have to get to the Scriptural understanding of "divorce and adultery" and what the BIBLE REALLY SAYS, rather than what we've been told by men.

Hello tsth,

I must say that you have brought up some very interesting scriptures and thoughts into the discussion that I believe are valid.

So a man can have only one wife and still be unqualified as a bishop. The woman in which the man married could have committed adultery on her previous husband causes this man who is desiring the office of a bishop to be in adultery if he marries her according to the scriptures you gave above Matthew 5:32

I have been looking at this from both sides of the fence and I really do think what you have to say is recieved by me as I want others opinions about this. I have always heard the issue of the bishop being debated on the man's side of things and being the role model and example but I was curious about the wife as a role model and leader and if it was good for her to have been married and divorced before. So you make a good point and I thank you for your response hope you'll have more to say.

blessings

OC

[Smalcald]

Saints,

The original post was asked in the spirit of trying to understand what husband of one wife meant. Please do not turn this into yet another thread dealing with the women's issue

I agree let us stick to this passage and the question of OC.

The passage and several others almost exactly like it found in the New Testament detailing the requirements for a Bishop, I think are really looking at both polygamy and the ability to maintain a marriage (in some sense serial marraiges are a form of polygamy if you think about it as you marry multiple women). As the other requirements deal with both ability and character it would seem rationale that this is also looking at that point.