The power of one word

[Guest man]

All of these verses tells us that we can take pride in ourselves for what we did. Was it really us who is the victor, or is it Christ in us that enabled us to run the race?

Paul is actually making reference to himself. The "I" in that verse is Paul.

[OneLight]

All of these verses tells us that we can take pride in ourselves for what we did. Was it really us who is the victor, or is it Christ in us that enabled us to run the race?

Paul is actually making reference to himself. The "I" in that verse is Paul.

Yes, I know. This question I want to address is not who said it, but how the meaning behind one word changes the whole sentence. When I was referring to the word I, it was because some of the verses that indicate being proud and having pride are pointed toward others and not toward the one speaking. This is a side discussion Neb and I were having.

[OneLight]

OK, this is why we are having confusion.

I don't see this as Paul taking pride in himself.

When an artist or a farmer takes pride in his work, I don't see that as puffing himself up.

When a father takes pride in his children, I don't see that as taking pride in himself.

When a mentor takes pride in his students, I don't see that as being focused on himself.

When one of my students gets an A and I say, "I'm proud of you," I'm not thinking I did such a great job teaching the student, I am thinking the student did a great job learning and memorizing the subject. I don't teach for me; I teach for them. When someone commends me for doing a good job teaching, sure it's a confidence boost, but the moment I think the students succeeded because of me, that's the moment I need to find a different job - because that will ruin me as a teacher.

Make sense?

In a worldly way, yes. Now, when a person takes pride in their painting, is it not because of what they did, and does not pride puff up, even if it is a little? When we live a Christian life, are we victorious because of our own abilities? Even though I understand what you are saying, I don't think you get the jest of what I am saying. We only are capable of running the race because of what Christ did and is doing in us. Nothing that we can do on our own would enable us to live this life and run this race. Since it is Him, the glory goes to Him. Yet, some verses, how they are worded, places the reason on the person and not Christ. Try reading the verses in that light and see if you can see what I am seeing.

At the beginning I stated that a mature Christian will have no trouble sorting through this. Yet, a new Christian may not because they have been living in the world which teaches us from the beginning to be proud in our accomplishments and to have pride in what we can do and who we are. All this is a lack of humility and something we continuously battle against as we grow in Him.

[Guest man]

All of these verses tells us that we can take pride in ourselves for what we did. Was it really us who is the victor, or is it Christ in us that enabled us to run the race?

Paul is actually making reference to himself. The "I" in that verse is Paul.

Yes, I know. This question I want to address is not who said it, but how the meaning behind one word changes the whole sentence. When I was referring to the word I, it was because some of the verses that indicate being proud and having pride are pointed toward others and not toward the one speaking. This is a side discussion Neb and I were having.

I'm not a fan of all the different translations out there, but I don't see where any of those verses point to anyone else but Paul himself.

[Guest Butero]

The verse in question is Philippians 2:16. Here is what it says in the only Bible translation I will ever use, the KJV.

Holding forth the word of life; that I may rejoice in the day of Christ, that I have not run in vain, neither laboured in vain.

This verse would not confuse a new Christian into believing they should be boastful. To rejoice is to celebrate. Often times, in order to get a copywrite, those who came up with new translations used words found in the definition that were not the best ones for the situation. That was the case here. The word in the Greek was kauchema, which means a boast, in a good or bad sense: boasting, (whereof) to glory (of), glorying, rejoice (-ing). The translators had to decide which word in the definition best fit the situation, and the KJV translators got it right. Yes, one word does make a difference to how we see things. Let's look at the words in a modern dictionary.

boast- To vaunt or extol the deeds or abilities of oneself or of another; brag.

rejoice- To feel joyful; be glad.

Often times, those who attack the KJV Bible like to claim it uses words that are out of date and that the modern English versions are better for today's readers. Here is a clear example where that is not the case.

[OneLight]

All of these verses tells us that we can take pride in ourselves for what we did. Was it really us who is the victor, or is it Christ in us that enabled us to run the race?

Paul is actually making reference to himself. The "I" in that verse is Paul.

Yes, I know. This question I want to address is not who said it, but how the meaning behind one word changes the whole sentence. When I was referring to the word I, it was because some of the verses that indicate being proud and having pride are pointed toward others and not toward the one speaking. This is a side discussion Neb and I were having.

I'm not a fan of all the different translations out there, but I don't see where any of those verses point to anyone else but Paul himself.

Yes, you are right. It does speak of Paul, but the subject of pride is shown in two ways. One, in himself, and the other in someone else. I guess I was not clear enough.

[OneLight]

The verse in question is Philippians 2:16. Here is what it says in the only Bible translation I will ever use, the KJV.

Holding forth the word of life; that I may rejoice in the day of Christ, that I have not run in vain, neither laboured in vain.

This verse would not confuse a new Christian into believing they should be boastful. To rejoice is to celebrate. Often times, in order to get a copywrite, those who came up with new translations used words found in the definition that were not the best ones for the situation. That was the case here. The word in the Greek was kauchema, which means a boast, in a good or bad sense: boasting, (whereof) to glory (of), glorying, rejoice (-ing). The translators had to decide which word in the definition best fit the situation, and the KJV translators got it right. Yes, one word does make a difference to how we see things. Let's look at the words in a modern dictionary.

boast- To vaunt or extol the deeds or abilities of oneself or of another; brag.

rejoice- To feel joyful; be glad.

Often times, those who attack the KJV Bible like to claim it uses words that are out of date and that the modern English versions are better for today's readers. Here is a clear example where that is not the case.

I guess you missed the plea I had in my first post, so I will post it again. I am trying to discuss how one word can change a sentence, not which version is right. We all have our favorite one.

note: this is not a version basking thread, but a discussion on how one word can change the meaning of a sentence.

[pokemaughan]

The verse in question is Philippians 2:16. Here is what it says in the only Bible translation I will ever use, the KJV.

Holding forth the word of life; that I may rejoice in the day of Christ, that I have not run in vain, neither laboured in vain.

This verse would not confuse a new Christian into believing they should be boastful. To rejoice is to celebrate. Often times, in order to get a copywrite, those who came up with new translations used words found in the definition that were not the best ones for the situation. That was the case here. The word in the Greek was kauchema, which means a boast, in a good or bad sense: boasting, (whereof) to glory (of), glorying, rejoice (-ing). The translators had to decide which word in the definition best fit the situation, and the KJV translators got it right. Yes, one word does make a difference to how we see things. Let's look at the words in a modern dictionary.

boast- To vaunt or extol the deeds or abilities of oneself or of another; brag.

rejoice- To feel joyful; be glad.

Often times, those who attack the KJV Bible like to claim it uses words that are out of date and that the modern English versions are better for today's readers. Here is a clear example where that is not the case.

I guess you missed the plea I had in my first post, so I will post it again. I am trying to discuss how one word can change a sentence, not which version is right. We all have our favorite one.

note: this is not a version basking thread, but a discussion on how one word can change the meaning of a sentence.

Yes, please, Butero...

I think we're all pretty tired of that poor dead horse

[Guest Butero]

The verse in question is Philippians 2:16. Here is what it says in the only Bible translation I will ever use, the KJV.

Holding forth the word of life; that I may rejoice in the day of Christ, that I have not run in vain, neither laboured in vain.

This verse would not confuse a new Christian into believing they should be boastful. To rejoice is to celebrate. Often times, in order to get a copywrite, those who came up with new translations used words found in the definition that were not the best ones for the situation. That was the case here. The word in the Greek was kauchema, which means a boast, in a good or bad sense: boasting, (whereof) to glory (of), glorying, rejoice (-ing). The translators had to decide which word in the definition best fit the situation, and the KJV translators got it right. Yes, one word does make a difference to how we see things. Let's look at the words in a modern dictionary.

boast- To vaunt or extol the deeds or abilities of oneself or of another; brag.

rejoice- To feel joyful; be glad.

Often times, those who attack the KJV Bible like to claim it uses words that are out of date and that the modern English versions are better for today's readers. Here is a clear example where that is not the case.

I guess you missed the plea I had in my first post, so I will post it again. I am trying to discuss how one word can change a sentence, not which version is right. We all have our favorite one.

note: this is not a version basking thread, but a discussion on how one word can change the meaning of a sentence.

Yes, please, Butero...

I think we're all pretty tired of that poor dead horse

The real Bible never used the word boast to begin with, so my point is valid to the discussion. I knew there was something wrong with the entire premise the moment I read the first post. That one word does change the entire meaning. No confusion would ever have come to me or anyone else that uses the KJV Bible.

As far as the point OneLight was trying to make, that the word boast could be Paul boasting in himself verses boasting in someone else like God perhaps, that can easily be dismissed by looking at the context. If the correct word is boast, Paul is most certainly boasting in himself. Let's look at the verse again with the word boast inserted.

Philippians 2:16 Holding forth the word of life; that I may rejoice (boast) in the day of Christ, that I have not run in vain, neither laboured in vain.

Notice that he is speaking of his personal works: "that I have not run in vain, neither laboured in vain." If the correct word here is boast, then Paul is teaching us to boast in our personal works. Fortunately, those of us who haven't been sucked into using modern English translations weren't confused to begin with because we know the correct English word in this verse is rejoice, which puts the verse in an entirely differen't light. The reason that this dead horse keeps getting beat is because he won't stay down. We continue to see examples like this where confusion is caused by new age Bible translations. I don't plan on continuing to argue this point throughout the thread, but I do think it is valid to the discussion. I don't plan on continuing to argue this point, but I will defend the point if others wish to be argumentative.

[Guest man]

All of these verses tells us that we can take pride in ourselves for what we did. Was it really us who is the victor, or is it Christ in us that enabled us to run the race?

Paul is actually making reference to himself. The "I" in that verse is Paul.

Yes, I know. This question I want to address is not who said it, but how the meaning behind one word changes the whole sentence. When I was referring to the word I, it was because some of the verses that indicate being proud and having pride are pointed toward others and not toward the one speaking. This is a side discussion Neb and I were having.

I'm not a fan of all the different translations out there, but I don't see where any of those verses point to anyone else but Paul himself.

Yes, you are right. It does speak of Paul, but the subject of pride is shown in two ways. One, in himself, and the other in someone else. I guess I was not clear enough.

Perhaps if you put it out there and explained where and what you are talking about, there would be no confusion.

Because all I see is Paul being happy if we do not stray from the Word. I don't see how someone could interpret that any other way.

Maybe I'm wrong, I don't know. Wouldn't be the first time.