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Posted (edited)
Greetings Pastor Jeff,

Much of what you ask, I believe, is clearly spelled out in the NT. You have to realize that the NT is the REVELATION of the OT. Without the NT, the OT remains in darkness. So what I might suggest is that you suggest a verse or verses and find out what their ROOT is in the OT. This will give you a well rounded understanding.

Blessings,

Dad Ernie

<{POST_SNAPBACK}>

Jesus said that the Foundation of the Torah and the Prophets was on these two commandments.

1. Love YHWH you God and have no other gods before him.

2. Love your Neighbor as your self.

Paul said that All scriptures is God breathed and usful to teaching and training in righteousness. He was hardly referring to the his letters that he wrote last year to the churches, but he was referring to the Hebrew Scriptures wich most call the OT.

It is on the basis of the Torah and the Prophets that the NT scriptures were inspired so if anything it is using these that gives clarity to the doctrines and teachings of the Apostles.

Shalom,

Mikhail

Edited by mikhailjb7
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Posted

quote,Mikhail Post 81 of this thread,

My research on wha the scriptures say do define that "Adultery only occurs when a woman breaks wedlock

Then on post 97 you say,


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Posted

Greetings Dave,

I get excited when people are this close to verses that illustrate the unchanging nature of God and his purpose.

Ex 20:14

You shall not commit adultery.

The word "kill" in the KJV (exodus 20:13) did not adequately describe the word "ratsach" and is now translated "murder" in most contemporary translations

In the same way "adultery" does not adequately describe "naaph". One might say then, You shall not lay with another mans wife, would more adequately describe the thought.

Mt 5:27

Guest shiloh357
Posted
Greetings Dave,

I get excited when people are this close to verses that illustrate the


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Posted

You know thats the second time you have argued with my Strong's Exhaustive Concordance. Perhaps I should just throw it away...

God Bless,

Robert


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Posted
I  don't need forgiveness for defending the truth of the Scriptures and calling your garbage what it is.  It is you who need to repent for perverting the Word of God. You can drop the condescending trash.

<{POST_SNAPBACK}>

Blessed are you when they revile and perscute you, and say all kinds of evil against you falsly for MY sake. Rejoice and be exceedingly glad, for great is your reward in heaven, for so they persecuted the prophets who were before you.

"If the world hates you, you know that it hated me before it hated you. If you were of the world the world would love  its own. Yet because you are not of the world, but I chose you out of the world, therefore the world hates you.

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Posted

What church do you belong to, Lionroot?

And no, this is not off-topic.

Guest shiloh357
Posted
You know thats the second time you have argued with my Strong's Exhaustive Concordance. Perhaps I should just throw it away...

God Bless,

Robert

<{POST_SNAPBACK}>

I am not arguing with Strong's concordance, just your inept handling of the Word of God. Strong's concordance is an exhaustive concordance. That means it gives EVERY possible meaning of a word. Using Strong's by itself is poor hermeutics. You need to study more, and talk less.


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Posted (edited)
quote,Mikhail Post 81 of this thread,

My research on wha the scriptures say do define that "Adultery only occurs when a woman breaks wedlock

Then on post 97 you say,

The act of adultery is wrong regardless of the whether it is the man or the woman
a bit contadictory, and inconsistant, don't you think? And to answer your question as to which commandment I break? the answer is none, now, but before I made my committment to follow Jesus I broke them all. and I committed every sin in the theological seven deadly sins and if you don't know the difference between adutory and fornication, your education has been sadly neglected.

cheers,

eric.

<{POST_SNAPBACK}>

You are misunderstanding my words here, and there is no contradiction. I was clarifying that fact that if the women was married it was adultery for her and for the man it was adultery whether or not he was married or not because of her maritial status.

Pretty straight forward to me.

Scenariosu Below.

1. Married Woman with Single Man = Adultery for both

2. Married Woman with Married Man = Adultery for both

That is all I was trying to point out.

Regards,

Mikhail

Edited by mikhailjb7
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