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The Torah tells us Jesus is not the Messiah it prophesies?


soonsister

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3 hours ago, soonsister said:

Yes. The faith passes through the mother. However, the tribal affiliation would not pass through Joseph because Joseph did not sire Jesus.

I'm not allowed to discuss this topic here, I'll be kicked off and banned.

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19 minutes ago, Zach said:

I'm not allowed to discuss this topic here, I'll be kicked off and banned.

I understand . I did not intend to put you at risk with my question.

Blessings,

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28 minutes ago, other one said:

How about common  sense....                  If I am translating the Hebrew into the LXX I think would would translate that into a word that was commonly believed to be proper at the time.    If the thought process at the time was not virgin, why in the world would they have translated it to that at the time....

Common sense? Very good. Because in the time of Mary a young woman of marriageable age as she was and being very young as most historians I've read say, she would naturally have been a virgin. And also because culturally it would not have been acceptable for a young maiden betrothed to not have her maidenhead prior to marriage.

As I recall Hebrew tradition at the time entailed having a older woman check the bride before marriage in order to insure she was virgin.

 

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13 minutes ago, soonsister said:

I understand . I did not intend to put you at risk with my question.

Blessings,

No worries, I was just giving you a 'heads up'. Modern Christianity adheres to doctrines defined by a creed formulated by a Roman Church 400 years after Jesus. One can be 100% scriptural yet differ with the creed and still be called heretics, Judaizer, false gospel, etc...banned off forums, kicked out of Churches etc... It has become the "Witch Hunt" of modern Christianity. I'm just glad their not allowed to burn people any more!

Edited by Zach
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3 hours ago, soonsister said:

For my part, I was seeking clarification in the name of Christ.

For Christians, the New Testament is clear enough. John the Baptizer sought clarification and received a very powerful answer.

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8 minutes ago, soonsister said:

Common sense? Very good. Because in the time of Mary a young woman of marriageable age as she was and being very young as most historians I've read say, she would naturally have been a virgin. And also because culturally it would not have been acceptable for a young maiden betrothed to not have her maidenhead prior to marriage.

As I recall Hebrew tradition at the time entailed having a older woman check the bride before marriage in order to insure she was virgin.

 

You're  TOTALLY MISSING THE POINT!!!

Even though you are technically right in your assumptions of cultural meaning, it is not what is said. It is NOT what the Hebrew says, therefore present your "Proof" to a Jew and they'll just laugh at you. If they are nice, they might take the time to explain to you the original meaning of the prophecy, and if they are real nice, show you in Scripture where it was fulfilled. Now I'm not denying a double fulfillment, I'm just saying taking a verse out of context and changing a word is.....well kinda suspect.

 

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13 minutes ago, Ezra said:

For Christians, the New Testament is clear enough. John the Baptizer sought clarification and received a very powerful answer.

I make a sincere inquiry in this discussion for clarification. Does that make me not a Christian?

And the disciplines that study Christian theology also do that. Christology, Apologetics of course, Epistemology,Pneumatology, Hamartiology, Soteriology,  Ecclesiology, and even on this site there is a page dedicated to Eschatology. 

 

 
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3 minutes ago, Zach said:

You're  TOTALLY MISSING THE POINT!!!

Even though you are technically right in your assumptions of cultural meaning, it is not what is said. It is NOT what the Hebrew says, therefore present your "Proof" to a Jew and they'll just laugh at you. If they are nice, they might take the time to explain to you the original meaning of the prophecy, and if they are real nice, show you in Scripture where it was fulfilled. Now I'm not denying a double fulfillment, I'm just saying taking a verse out of context and changing a word is.....well kinda suspect.

 

You seem to be very emotional being you're screaming in text at me now. 

Why do you feel that necessary?

Yeshayah 7:14

14 Therefore Hashem Himself shall give you an ot (sign); Hinei, HaAlmah (the unmarried young virgin) shall conceive, and bear Ben, and shall call Shmo Immanu El (G-d is with us)

Orthodox Jewish Bible.

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15 minutes ago, soonsister said:

You seem to be very emotional being you're screaming in text at me now. 

Why do you feel that necessary?

Yeshayah 7:14

14 Therefore Hashem Himself shall give you an ot (sign); Hinei, HaAlmah (the unmarried young virgin) shall conceive, and bear Ben, and shall call Shmo Immanu El (G-d is with us)

Orthodox Jewish Bible.

Sorry, I wasn't screaming at you. I sometimes get irritated when people can not appreciate more than one view of the text insisting their view is the only right view. They need a wake up call. They need a little screaming.

whispering......the point is the text can be viewed in two acceptable ways, those who deny this have an agenda and are not interested in the truth.

as for the reference you quoted, its an interpretation. The word used in Isaiah 7:14 can be interpreted two ways. So the contention is if being a "virgin" is of paramount importanance, the question must be asked then why wasn't the specific Hebrew word for virgin used?

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1 hour ago, soonsister said:

Yeshayah 7:14

14 Therefore Hashem Himself shall give you an ot (sign); Hinei, HaAlmah (the unmarried young virgin) shall conceive, and bear Ben, and shall call Shmo Immanu El (G-d is with us)

 

The Bottom line is:

Jews declare this a fulfilled prophecy within the context it was given.

Christians declare this a fulfilled prophecy outside the context it was given.

They're both right.

The only people who argue are the 'I'm right and everyone else is wrong' crowd.

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