King James Version Bible vs. Modern English Bibles

[ScottA]

1 hour ago, simplejeff said:

Upon whom is it written in TORAH that YHVH sends the rain ,  and of course the sun shine ?

(this may of may not lead to anything pertinent here)

I looked up flesh in blueletterbible, for another example:

"The KJV translates Strong's G4561 in the following manner: flesh (147x), carnal (2x), carnally minded (with G5427) (1x), fleshly (1x).

Outline of Biblical Usage [?]

1. flesh (the soft substance of the living body, which covers the bones and is permeated with blood) of both man and beasts

2. the body

   1. the body of a man

   2. used of natural or physical origin, generation or relationship

      1. born of natural generation

   3. the sensuous nature of man, "the animal nature"

      1. without any suggestion of depravity

      2. the animal nature with cravings which incite to sin

      3. the physical nature of man as subject to suffering

3. a living creature (because possessed of a body of flesh) whether man or beast

4. the flesh, denotes mere human nature, the earthly nature of man apart from divine influence, and therefore prone to sin and opposed to God"

If one can receive it, this regards the translation of all flesh into spirit (the end of all flesh), meaning the time of the judgement...and again, when exactly did that begin? The day of Pentecost.

[simplejeff]

5 minutes ago, ScottA said:

If one can receive it, this regards the translation of all flesh into spirit (the end of all flesh), meaning the time of the judgement...and again, when exactly did that begin? The day of Pentecost.

Sorry - it looks like this is a start to derail from the true faith, and not for this thread (hopefully not for any thread ! ) ...

[Guest Butero]

44 minutes ago, The_Patriot2018 said:

I don't have to do any of that. Because not all translations have removed portions of scripture. If they did, then you might have a point. But they dont, so your point is mute. For example, the NASB contains all the same content as the kjv, except they got it all from the greek and hebrew texts, NOT the latin vulgate. To hold one translation over another translation even though the two contain the exact same message, is the very definition of legalism.

Now im not against legalism, to a point its a good thing and even necessary, but there comes a point where it goes to far. This entire kjv thing is to far because there is no empirical evidence that it is the one and only, and likely never will on this earth as the original greek has been lost. So hammering on it does nothing but ignore the concepts that the book actually teaches.

This won't likely satisfy you, but I will post what I found.  In the NASB, they are not as bold as the NIV and some other translations as to remove entire verses, but they do remove large portions of verses, while discrediting others.  Rather than removing entire verses, they will place bars around them and claim the oldest manuscripts don't contain them.  They change the meaning of many verses.  I am going to try to provide a link to back up what I said.

http://www.hissheep.org/kjv/a_comparison_of_the_kjv_nasb.html

This corrupt translation takes out portions of the established canon, only in a more subtle way and discredits other portions of the canon.  

[ScottA]

1 hour ago, Butero said:

What is truthful about claiming God's Spirit will be poured out on literally all flesh, when it clearly won't be?  It will only be poured out on born again Christians.  We see examples of that in the Book of Acts.  

You are pitting one scripture against another, meaning you are in error because God is not. Joel the prophet foretold of God pouring out His spirit upon "all" flesh. Therefore, you cannot rightfully now claim that it is only on some. God is right, you are wrong.

But you have come to a great discovery of revelation, if you can receive it: Joel's prophecy which began at the day of Pentecost, refers to the translation of all flesh into spirit and the end of all flesh...which means the judgement before God. You may need to take some time to process that. But it indicates the times regarding the judgement that have not been fully understood.

[ScottA]

2 hours ago, simplejeff said:

There are times in English Bibles when "all" doesn't mean "all of the biggest whole set of something/ people/ nations",

but here in this context, and looking at what flesh seems to mean,  perhaps all does mean all.

Just like the GOSPEL IS PREACHED TO ALL -- yet most never receive it,  never accept it ,  are never saved, no not ever.

So the GOSPEL MESSAGE is for the remnant an aroma of LIFE !  but to those destined for destruction , the SAME GOSPEL MESSAGE is the aroma of DEATH ! 

Could be ?  (don't know of examples yet) That when YHVH'S SPIRIT is poured out,  those destined for destruction are killed by it ?  Or terrified ?  (i.e. NOT saved by it)  

WHile ALL those in Christ Jesus abiding in His Word born again with eternal life ,   it is OVERFLOWING JOY AND PEACE AND RIGHTEOUSNESS FOR THEM ! ?

This would seem to 'fit' with all that the KJV and every other Bible says , right ?  < shrugs >  Subject to finding examples or testing and revelation  / understanding from the Father / in Scripture to verify or to dismiss....

"Some to everlasting life, some to shame and everlasting contempt" ... When...is this talking about? I tell you - it is a revelation!

[ScottA]

1 hour ago, Heleadethme said:

Brother, can you point me to the thread(s) where you talked about this?

It was just a side note to our topic, so it's brief. But this perhaps will give you more of what was said: 

https://www.worthychristianforums.com/topic/218774-king-james-version-bible-vs-modern-english-bibles/?page=17&tab=comments#comment-2759753

Edited February 15, 2018 by ScottA

[ScottA]

39 minutes ago, simplejeff said:

Sorry - it looks like this is a start to derail from the true faith, and not for this thread (hopefully not for any thread ! ) ...

Certainly we have gotten off track with the thread...but not with the scriptures or the faith. I have only quoted the scriptures and explained them. Receiving it is another matter. Perhaps another time.

[The_Patriot21]

36 minutes ago, Butero said:

This won't likely satisfy you, but I will post what I found.  In the NASB, they are not as bold as the NIV and some other translations as to remove entire verses, but they do remove large portions of verses, while discrediting others.  Rather than removing entire verses, they will place bars around them and claim the oldest manuscripts don't contain them.  They change the meaning of many verses.  I am going to try to provide a link to back up what I said.

http://www.hissheep.org/kjv/a_comparison_of_the_kjv_nasb.html

This corrupt translation takes out portions of the established canon, only in a more subtle way and discredits other portions of the canon.  

They don't remove any verses, some are written differently, due to different texts used in translation,but none removed. All the original meaning is still there. There is no more verses removed from the nasb then there was when they transliterated the modern kjv from the 1611. (Yes there are differences)

The Catholics used all the exact same arguments as you to defend the latin vulgate and prevent it from being translated into English. In fact that may have been a large part of why the translators relied heavily on the vulgate when translating the kjv, an attempt to appease the Catholic church.

Their arguments held no watee, and neither do yours, because like i said without the original greek text which no longer exists, your arguments are based upon nothing more then personal opinion.

[Guest Butero]

23 minutes ago, ScottA said:

You are pitting one scripture against another, meaning you are in error because God is not. Joel the prophet foretold of God pouring out His spirit upon "all" flesh. Therefore, you cannot rightfully now claim that it is only on some. God is right, you are wrong.

But you have come to a great discovery of revelation, if you can receive it: Joel's prophecy which began at the day of Pentecost, refers to the translation of all flesh into spirit and the end of all flesh...which means the judgement before God. You may need to take some time to process that. But it indicates the times regarding the judgement that have not been fully understood.

I am not pitting one scripture against another.  I am saying you are misinterpreting scripture.  After the Holy Ghost was poured out upon those in the upper room, and them only, Peter states in Acts 2:16-18  

But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel; And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh:  and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams:  And on my servants and on my handmaidens I will pour out in those days of my Spirit; and they shall prophesy.

Peter states that what happened to a relatively small number of individuals in a single upper room was the fulfillment of this prophecy.  If the prophesy means everyone, everyone including the mockers would have had the Spirit poured out upon them, but they did not.  I am saying we have in scripture, a first hand account of this event taking place, and that proves you are wrong.  

I don't receive what you are saying, because Peter said otherwise.  

[Guest Butero]

1 minute ago, The_Patriot2018 said:

They don't remove any verses, some are written differently, due to different texts used in translation,but none removed. All the original meaning is still there. There is no more verses removed from the nasb then there was when they transliterated the modern kjv from the 1611. (Yes there are differences)

The Catholics used all the exact same arguments as you to defend the latin vulgate and prevent it from being translated into English. In fact that may have been a large part of why the translators relied heavily on the vulgate when translating the kjv, an attempt to appease the Catholic church.

Their arguments held no watee, and neither do yours, because like i said without the original greek text which no longer exists, your arguments are based upon nothing more then personal opinion.

The link works, and it proves what you said is not true.  I have a 1611 KJV Bible and a modern Authorized Version with me in my truck, and I have read both cover to cover and compared them, and I know what you say about that is a lie.  The only differences are changes to the spelling and a couple of printing errors, not translations errors.  I have a modern Authorized KJV Bible with a printing error.