Does God Love All People?

[jeremiah1five]

The first thing to understand before attempting to answer this question is to define what is love, specifically, what is Biblical love, or more accurately, what is God's love? So, let's take a passage of Scripture in which the subject (God) is described by the predicate (love):

1 John 4:8 (KJV)  He that loveth not knoweth not God; for God is love.

love: [Strong's Greek #26] ἀγάπη agapē (pronounced: ag-ah'-pay) from [#25] (agapao); love, i.e. affection or benevolence. [#25]:

[#25] (agapao); love, i.e. affection or benevolence; specially (plural) a love-feast.

Vine's describes the word as follows: "Love can be known only from the actions it prompts. God's love is seen in the gift of His Son, John 4:9, 10. But obviously this is not the love of complacency, or affection, that is, it was not drawn out by any excellency in its objects, Rom. 5:8. It was an exercise of the Divine will in deliberate choice, made without assignable cause save that which lies in the nature of God Himself, Cp. Deut. 7:7, 8."

Deuteronomy 7:7-8 (KJV) The LORD did not set his love upon you, nor choose you, because ye were more in number than any people; for ye were the fewest of all people: 8 But because the LORD loved you, and because he would keep the oath which he had sworn unto your fathers, hath the LORD brought you out with a mighty hand, and redeemed you out of the house of bondmen, from the hand of Pharaoh king of Egypt.

It wasn't you that God loved, but Himself and the oath He swore unto [your] fathers is the extension of love from God to His Covenant people, Israel. God is love. God loves Himself. Self-love. But in Trinity there is an "object" of this love, that is, His Son. The Father loves the Son, and the Son loves the Father. Moses says that God does not love you for any reason than Himself. Without this oath there would be no love towards this people, or any people for that matter. So, God's love is Himself, and this love is extended to Israel, His elect, because of an oath He made to the patriarchs of this people. Full circle. Love begins and ends with God. God is love.

But the question remains: Does God love all people? The answer is no. If God's love is extended to God's Elect because of this oath, then the question becomes: What oath has God made to the world? The answer is none. God has made no oath to the world. He made an oath to the patriarchs of Israel. Israel is by choice of God in Covenant with God, but the world at large, the heathen nations, those outside Covenant have no oath of God to speak of. Thus, no love has been extended to the world as coming from God, for if the evidence of God's love is because of the existence of an oath He made to the patriarchs of Israel, and the world at large do not have an oath to speak of, then God has not extended His love to the world. It is by oath that God loves Israel, not because of any other reason. And if there is no oath of God made to the world, then the world is love-less of God. Or, to put it another way, God does not love the world because He has made no such oath to the world which would evidence an affection or benevolence to the world.

But what about this:

John 3:16 (KJV) For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
Or this:
1 John 2:15-17 (KJV) Love not the world, neither the things that are in the world. If any man love the world, the love of the Father is not in him. 16 For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world. 17 And the world passeth away, and the lust thereof: but he that doeth the will of God abideth for ever.

Is there a contradiction? If God's love is predicated upon an oath, then what oath has God made to the world? Second, if God made oath to the patriarchs of Israel, and John 3:16 declares God loves the world, then God's love is predicated to all humanity based upon two oaths, and this leads the student of the Word to the doctrine of Universalism, which states that all mankind will be saved. If this is the case, then someone needs to go and tell the rich man he's in the wrong place. Universalism is not Biblical. It was a heresy the Church rejected in the 4th century. And it was a holding that was never in the Law (of Moses), the Prophets, and the Psalms.

But I ask again, what oath has God made to the world, and where in Scripture is this oath stated? Where is the history in Scripture behind such an oath as we would find an oath in the history of the Hebrew people? Does God say about Israel as He does about the world in 1 John 2:15-17, that "all that is in Israel, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life?" Is this a true statement? I find no such designation for Israel for these things that are in opposition to God as is found in the world. If these things are in opposition to God, then it would be a contradiction for God to love these things, ergo, 1 John 2:15-17.

In order to understand "God so loved the world" the identification "world" must be qualified. Who are these people? And why does God "love" them and then tell us not to love them in 1 John 2:15? Why the contradiction? But there is no contradiction. The world, and the things in the world, are ruled by the god of this world, in other words, unregenerate man. This is a people of all tribes, kindred, tongue, nationality, that God has not extended oath nor salvation. No atonement has be given to "the world." But why does John say "God so loved the world?"

Jesus Christ as High Priest (Heb. 3:1) is about to go to the cross. And as High Priest he does what a High Priest is instructed in the Law to do, that is, pray for the people of God in Covenant and offer sacrifices for the people of God in Covenant. The prayer Jesus offers up is found in John 17. Martin Luther calls this prayer of Christ the "holy of holies" prayer, and for good reason. Christ in John 17 is sanctifying Himself for the work He is about to perform for God the Father. Christ sanctifies Himself, Christ sanctifies the twelve, and Christ sanctifies those that will come to Him because of their testimony.

John 17:1-2 (KJV) These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee: 2 As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him.

Jesus continues:

John 17:6 (KJV) I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word. Jesus prays, "I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world."

So, this qualifies "the world" that God so loved in John 3:16. They are a people God the Father has given to the Son OUT of the world. And the "whosoever believeth" does not mean whosoever may believe, but whosoever HAS or will believe. This is a people God has already given to the Son. Christ gives eternal life to as many as the Father has given Him (Matt. 1:21). And this people are spread throughout the realm and dispensation of TIME, past, present, and future. This explains Christ's cry from the cross: "Father, forgive THEM, for they know not what they do." This cannot be applied directly to the people involved in His crucifixion, and only them. Christ is performing His role as High Priest and asking the Father to "forgive them (the Elect), those whom the Father has given to the Son."

There is no oath from God to the world. God does not love the world (non-elect), nor the things in the world. If God did have oath towards the world, and Christ as High Priest is about to sacrifice Himself on the cross, the time to pray for those who are to be under this sanctification and atonement would be right here and now.

However, Christ does not pray for the world. He prays for THEM (those whom the Father has given to the Son):

John 17:9 (KJV) I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.

It would appear from the text that "the world" was not given to the Son for atonement, but for THEM, those God has given to the Son from OUT of the world. If God loves you He will save you. If God does not love you He will not save you, but the wrath of God abides on you. In Christ's prayer of John 17 there is distinction. That distinction being "the world" and THEM"

Read through this chapter and see Christ making atonement for them as opposed to the world. God loves those whom He has taken out of the world, but the world does not have atonement provided to them. God has not made an oath to the world. So, why would you love the world when God has strictly forbid it? That's casting your pearls to swine. Do you love that which God hates, or hate that which God loves? To do so is to oppose God. Besides, love is not an emotion. Love is not a feeling. The world thinks they have love and that it is a feeling, but that's all they got is a feeling. The love of God is not an emotion, but an act. "Agape" is a verb, an action: "For God so loved the world that He gave..." What did He give? His only begotton Son. But He gives the Son to THEM, those whose names were written by God in the book of life of the lamb slain from [before] the foundation (creation) of the world" (Rev. 13:8 ).

Does God love all people the same?

He most certainly, and Biblically, does not.

Edited October 6, 2018 by jeremiah1five

[Unfailing Presence]

16 minutes ago, jeremiah1five said:

The first thing to understand before attempting to answer this question is to define what is love, specifically, what is Biblical love, or more accurately, what is God's love? So, let's take a passage of Scripture in which the subject (God) is described by the predicate (love):

1 John 4:8 (KJV)  He that loveth not knoweth not God; for God is love.

love: [Strong's Greek #26] ἀγάπη agapē (pronounced: ag-ah'-pay) from [#25] (agapao); love, i.e. affection or benevolence. [#25]:

[#25] (agapao); love, i.e. affection or benevolence; specially (plural) a love-feast.

Vine's describes the word as follows: "Love can be known only from the actions it prompts. God's love is seen in the gift of His Son, John 4:9, 10. But obviously this is not the love of complacency, or affection, that is, it was not drawn out by any excellency in its objects, Rom. 5:8. It was an exercise of the Divine will in deliberate choice, made without assignable cause save that which lies in the nature of God Himself, Cp. Deut. 7:7, 8."

Deuteronomy 7:7-8 (KJV) The LORD did not set his love upon you, nor choose you, because ye were more in number than any people; for ye were the fewest of all people: 8 But because the LORD loved you, and because he would keep the oath which he had sworn unto your fathers, hath the LORD brought you out with a mighty hand, and redeemed you out of the house of bondmen, from the hand of Pharaoh king of Egypt.

It wasn't you that God loved, but Himself and the oath He swore unto [your] fathers is the extension of love from God to His Covenant people, Israel. God is love. God loves Himself. Self-love. But in Trinity there is an "object" of this love, that is, His Son. The Father loves the Son, and the Son loves the Father. Moses says that God does not love you for any reason than Himself. Without this oath there would be no love towards this people, or any people for that matter. So, God's love is Himself, and this love is extended to Israel, His elect, because of an oath He made to the patriarchs of this people. Full circle. Love begins and ends with God. God is love.

But the question remains: Does God love all people? The answer is no. If God's love is extended to God's Elect because of this oath, then the question becomes: What oath has God made to the world? The answer is none. God has made no oath to the world. He made an oath to the patriarchs of Israel. Israel is by choice of God in Covenant with God, but the world at large, the heathen nations, those outside Covenant have no oath of God to speak of. Thus, no love has been extended to the world as coming from God, for if the evidence of God's love is because of the existence of an oath He made to the patriarchs of Israel, and the world at large do not have an oath to speak of, then God has not extended His love to the world. It is by oath that God loves Israel, not because of any other reason. And if there is no oath of God made to the world, then the world is love-less of God. Or, to put it another way, God does not love the world because He has made no such oath to the world which would evidence an affection or benevolence to the world.

But what about this:

John 3:16 (KJV) For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
Or this:
1 John 2:15-17 (KJV) Love not the world, neither the things that are in the world. If any man love the world, the love of the Father is not in him. 16 For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world. 17 And the world passeth away, and the lust thereof: but he that doeth the will of God abideth for ever.

Is there a contradiction? If God's love is predicated upon an oath, then what oath has God made to the world? Second, if God made oath to the patriarchs of Israel, and John 3:16 declares God loves the world, then God's love is predicated to all humanity based upon two oaths, and this leads the student of the Word to the doctrine of Universalism, which states that all mankind will be saved. If this is the case, then someone needs to go and tell the rich man he's in the wrong place. Universalism is not Biblical. It was a heresy the Church rejected in the 4th century. And it was a holding that was never in the Law (of Moses), the Prophets, and the Psalms.

But I ask again, what oath has God made to the world, and where in Scripture is this oath stated? Where is the history in Scripture behind such an oath as we would find an oath in the history of the Hebrew people? Does God say about Israel as He does about the world in 1 John 2:15-17, that "all that is in Israel, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life?" Is this a true statement? I find no such designation for Israel for these things that are in opposition to God as is found in the world. If these things are in opposition to God, then it would be a contradiction for God to love these things, ergo, 1 John 2:15-17.

In order to understand "God so loved the world" the identification "world" must be qualified. Who are these people? And why does God "love" them and then tell us not to love them in 1 John 2:15? Why the contradiction? But there is no contradiction. The world, and the things in the world, are ruled by the god of this world, in other words, unregenerate man. This is a people of all tribes, kindred, tongue, nationality, that God has not extended oath nor salvation. No atonement has be given to "the world." But why does John say "God so loved the world?"

Jesus Christ as High Priest (Heb. 3:1) is about to go to the cross. And as High Priest he does what a High Priest is instructed in the Law to do, that is, pray for the people of God in Covenant and offer sacrifices for the people of God in Covenant. The prayer Jesus offers up is found in John 17. Martin Luther calls this prayer of Christ the "holy of holies" prayer, and for good reason. Christ in John 17 is sanctifying Himself for the work He is about to perform for God the Father. Christ sanctifies Himself, Christ sanctifies the twelve, and Christ sanctifies those that will come to Him because of their testimony.

John 17:1-2 (KJV) These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee: 2 As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him.

Jesus continues:

John 17:6 (KJV) I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word. Jesus prays, "I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world."

So, this qualifies "the world" that God so loved in John 3:16. They are a people God the Father has given to the Son OUT of the world. And the "whosoever believeth" does not mean whosoever may believe, but whosoever HAS or will believe. This is a people God has already given to the Son. Christ gives eternal life to as many as the Father has given Him (Matt. 1:21). And this people are spread throughout the realm and dispensation of TIME, past, present, and future. This explains Christ's cry from the cross: "Father, forgive THEM, for they know not what they do." This cannot be applied directly to the people involved in His crucifixion, and only them. Christ is performing His role as High Priest and asking the Father to "forgive them (the Elect), those whom the Father has given to the Son."

There is no oath from God to the world. God does not love the world (non-elect), nor the things in the world. If God did have oath towards the world, and Christ as High Priest is about to sacrifice Himself on the cross, the time to pray for those who are to be under this sanctification and atonement would be right here and now.

However, Christ does not pray for the world. He prays for THEM (those whom the Father has given to the Son):

John 17:9 (KJV) I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.

It would appear from the text that "the world" was not given to the Son for atonement, but for THEM, those God has given to the Son from OUT of the world. If God loves you He will save you. If God does not love you He will not save you, but the wrath of God abides on you. In Christ's prayer of John 17 there is distinction. That distinction being "the world" and THEM"

Read through this chapter and see Christ making atonement for them as opposed to the world. God loves those whom He has taken out of the world, but the world does not have atonement provided to them. God has not made an oath to the world. So, why would you love the world when God has strictly forbid it? That's casting your pearls to swine. Do you love that which God hates, or hate that which God loves? To do so is to oppose God. Besides, love is not an emotion. Love is not a feeling. The world thinks they have love and that it is a feeling, but that's all they got is a feeling. The love of God is not an emotion, but an act. "Agape" is a verb, an action: "For God so loved the world that He gave..." What did He give? His only begotton Son. But He gives the Son to THEM, those whose names were written by God in the book of life of the lamb slain from [before] the foundation (creation) of the world" (Rev. 13:8 ).

Does God love all people the same?

He most certainly, and Biblically, does not.

If God does not love everyone why did He put into the soul of every person a deep yearning for God ? 

              "Thou hast made us for Thyself and our soul is restless until we rest in Thee" , is still the echo of every person's soul today . 

  

" Acquaint now thyself with Him and be at peace , thereby good shall come unto to thee ."   ( Job 22 :21 )

[Willa]

God sent into my life a man who was full of hate and who sounded a lot like Archie Bunker.  I could not love that man and God convicted me of MY lack of love.  This is how He taught me about His love.  I learned through Archie first to laugh at the man's illogical conclusions and fallacies, and then to laugh at my own.  God helped me to see how miserable Archie was, and how bitter hatred had so corrupted this man I was forced to endure at times.  He was full of sin and was a pawn of satan, being still in his domain.  But he had need of nothing.  He was just as good as the next guy and wanted no part of God or a Savior.  And so he died.  I weep for this man who was so lost and for those like him. God used him to change my hatred to pity and compassion--to see him as God sees him.  For such did Christ come.

[jeremiah1five]

26 minutes ago, Unfailing Presence said:

If God does not love everyone why did He put into the soul of every person a deep yearning for God ? 

              "Thou hast made us for Thyself and our soul is restless until we rest in Thee" , is still the echo of every person's soul today . 

  

" Acquaint now thyself with Him and be at peace , thereby good shall come unto to thee ."   ( Job 22 :21 )

That "deep yearning" was put into His elect people - those whose names are written in the book of life of the lamb slain... and ONLY after one has become saved. 

The natural man (unsaved) receives not the things of the Spirit of God for they are foolishness to them...

The Scripture, the Word of God, was given TO and FOR God's Covenant people ONLY. Read it in this context and come to the knowledge of the truth. 

Job was Covenant and the context is Covenant people.

Be care with words like "world" and "all" and "every" because the context is usually always the Lord's Covenant people unless the context says otherwise.

Thanks for your reply. 

[Unfailing Presence]

1 minute ago, jeremiah1five said:

32 minutes ago, Unfailing Presence said:

If God does not love everyone why did He put into the soul of every person a deep yearning for God ? 

              "Thou hast made us for Thyself and our soul is restless until we rest in Thee" , is still the echo of every person's soul today . 

  

" Acquaint now thyself with Him and be at peace , thereby good shall come unto to thee ."   ( Job 22 :21 )

That "deep yearning" was put into His elect people

Not my experience . 

The real " love " you need to answer to know the heart of God requires looking into a mirror and asking ourselves  ,  " why do I not love my neighbor as I love myself ? " 

[jeremiah1five]

30 minutes ago, Willa said:

God sent into my life a man who was full of hate and who sounded a lot like Archie Bunker.  I could not love that man and God convicted me of MY lack of love.  This is how He taught me about His love.  I learned through Archie first to laugh at the man's illogical conclusions and fallacies, and then to laugh at my own.  God helped me to see how miserable Archie was, and how bitter hatred had so corrupted this man I was forced to endure at times.  He was full of sin and was a pawn of satan, being still in his domain.  But he had need of nothing.  He was just as good as the next guy and wanted no part of God or a Savior.  And so he died.  I weep for this man who was so lost and for those like him. God used him to change my hatred to pity and compassion--to see him as God sees him.  For such did Christ come.

Willa, I appreciate this testimony. Thank you. 

I hope you have learned that the LORD has instructed and commanded His people WHO to love and HOW. Love does come with doctrine (2 Tim. 3:16-17).

There were times in my walk I surely believed God put me in a direction and a choice for me but I was wrong and much suffering occurred. But we learn more about ourselves, about others and about God. And THAT is His purpose. He takes us from glory to glory as His kids so that we may be conformed to our measure of faith and the image of Christ. 

Thank you.

(wow)

[jeremiah1five]

Just now, Unfailing Presence said:

Not my experience . 

The real " love " you need to answer to know the heart of God requires looking into a mirror and asking ourselves  ,  " why do I not love my neighbor as I love myself ? " 

According to the Lord's instruction and command our "neighbor" is another believer of a different spiritual tribe (as in the 12 tribes of Israel). It does not mean someone you may live near, or across the street, or someone you bump into at the super-duper market. ALL things Covenant belong to those IN Covenant. Not even God casts His Pearl, Jesus Christ, to swine.

Thanks.

[Not me]

3 hours ago, jeremiah1five said:

The first thing to understand before attempting to answer this question is to define what is love, specifically, what is Biblical love, or more accurately, what is God's love? So, let's take a passage of Scripture in which the subject (God) is described by the predicate (love):

1 John 4:8 (KJV)  He that loveth not knoweth not God; for God is love.

love: [Strong's Greek #26] ἀγάπη agapē (pronounced: ag-ah'-pay) from [#25] (agapao); love, i.e. affection or benevolence. [#25]:

[#25] (agapao); love, i.e. affection or benevolence; specially (plural) a love-feast.

Vine's describes the word as follows: "Love can be known only from the actions it prompts. God's love is seen in the gift of His Son, John 4:9, 10. But obviously this is not the love of complacency, or affection, that is, it was not drawn out by any excellency in its objects, Rom. 5:8. It was an exercise of the Divine will in deliberate choice, made without assignable cause save that which lies in the nature of God Himself, Cp. Deut. 7:7, 8."

Deuteronomy 7:7-8 (KJV) The LORD did not set his love upon you, nor choose you, because ye were more in number than any people; for ye were the fewest of all people: 8 But because the LORD loved you, and because he would keep the oath which he had sworn unto your fathers, hath the LORD brought you out with a mighty hand, and redeemed you out of the house of bondmen, from the hand of Pharaoh king of Egypt.

It wasn't you that God loved, but Himself and the oath He swore unto [your] fathers is the extension of love from God to His Covenant people, Israel. God is love. God loves Himself. Self-love. But in Trinity there is an "object" of this love, that is, His Son. The Father loves the Son, and the Son loves the Father. Moses says that God does not love you for any reason than Himself. Without this oath there would be no love towards this people, or any people for that matter. So, God's love is Himself, and this love is extended to Israel, His elect, because of an oath He made to the patriarchs of this people. Full circle. Love begins and ends with God. God is love.

But the question remains: Does God love all people? The answer is no. If God's love is extended to God's Elect because of this oath, then the question becomes: What oath has God made to the world? The answer is none. God has made no oath to the world. He made an oath to the patriarchs of Israel. Israel is by choice of God in Covenant with God, but the world at large, the heathen nations, those outside Covenant have no oath of God to speak of. Thus, no love has been extended to the world as coming from God, for if the evidence of God's love is because of the existence of an oath He made to the patriarchs of Israel, and the world at large do not have an oath to speak of, then God has not extended His love to the world. It is by oath that God loves Israel, not because of any other reason. And if there is no oath of God made to the world, then the world is love-less of God. Or, to put it another way, God does not love the world because He has made no such oath to the world which would evidence an affection or benevolence to the world.

But what about this:

John 3:16 (KJV) For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
Or this:
1 John 2:15-17 (KJV) Love not the world, neither the things that are in the world. If any man love the world, the love of the Father is not in him. 16 For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world. 17 And the world passeth away, and the lust thereof: but he that doeth the will of God abideth for ever.

Is there a contradiction? If God's love is predicated upon an oath, then what oath has God made to the world? Second, if God made oath to the patriarchs of Israel, and John 3:16 declares God loves the world, then God's love is predicated to all humanity based upon two oaths, and this leads the student of the Word to the doctrine of Universalism, which states that all mankind will be saved. If this is the case, then someone needs to go and tell the rich man he's in the wrong place. Universalism is not Biblical. It was a heresy the Church rejected in the 4th century. And it was a holding that was never in the Law (of Moses), the Prophets, and the Psalms.

But I ask again, what oath has God made to the world, and where in Scripture is this oath stated? Where is the history in Scripture behind such an oath as we would find an oath in the history of the Hebrew people? Does God say about Israel as He does about the world in 1 John 2:15-17, that "all that is in Israel, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life?" Is this a true statement? I find no such designation for Israel for these things that are in opposition to God as is found in the world. If these things are in opposition to God, then it would be a contradiction for God to love these things, ergo, 1 John 2:15-17.

In order to understand "God so loved the world" the identification "world" must be qualified. Who are these people? And why does God "love" them and then tell us not to love them in 1 John 2:15? Why the contradiction? But there is no contradiction. The world, and the things in the world, are ruled by the god of this world, in other words, unregenerate man. This is a people of all tribes, kindred, tongue, nationality, that God has not extended oath nor salvation. No atonement has be given to "the world." But why does John say "God so loved the world?"

Jesus Christ as High Priest (Heb. 3:1) is about to go to the cross. And as High Priest he does what a High Priest is instructed in the Law to do, that is, pray for the people of God in Covenant and offer sacrifices for the people of God in Covenant. The prayer Jesus offers up is found in John 17. Martin Luther calls this prayer of Christ the "holy of holies" prayer, and for good reason. Christ in John 17 is sanctifying Himself for the work He is about to perform for God the Father. Christ sanctifies Himself, Christ sanctifies the twelve, and Christ sanctifies those that will come to Him because of their testimony.

John 17:1-2 (KJV) These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee: 2 As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him.

Jesus continues:

John 17:6 (KJV) I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word. Jesus prays, "I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world."

So, this qualifies "the world" that God so loved in John 3:16. They are a people God the Father has given to the Son OUT of the world. And the "whosoever believeth" does not mean whosoever may believe, but whosoever HAS or will believe. This is a people God has already given to the Son. Christ gives eternal life to as many as the Father has given Him (Matt. 1:21). And this people are spread throughout the realm and dispensation of TIME, past, present, and future. This explains Christ's cry from the cross: "Father, forgive THEM, for they know not what they do." This cannot be applied directly to the people involved in His crucifixion, and only them. Christ is performing His role as High Priest and asking the Father to "forgive them (the Elect), those whom the Father has given to the Son."

There is no oath from God to the world. God does not love the world (non-elect), nor the things in the world. If God did have oath towards the world, and Christ as High Priest is about to sacrifice Himself on the cross, the time to pray for those who are to be under this sanctification and atonement would be right here and now.

However, Christ does not pray for the world. He prays for THEM (those whom the Father has given to the Son):

John 17:9 (KJV) I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.

It would appear from the text that "the world" was not given to the Son for atonement, but for THEM, those God has given to the Son from OUT of the world. If God loves you He will save you. If God does not love you He will not save you, but the wrath of God abides on you. In Christ's prayer of John 17 there is distinction. That distinction being "the world" and THEM"

Read through this chapter and see Christ making atonement for them as opposed to the world. God loves those whom He has taken out of the world, but the world does not have atonement provided to them. God has not made an oath to the world. So, why would you love the world when God has strictly forbid it? That's casting your pearls to swine. Do you love that which God hates, or hate that which God loves? To do so is to oppose God. Besides, love is not an emotion. Love is not a feeling. The world thinks they have love and that it is a feeling, but that's all they got is a feeling. The love of God is not an emotion, but an act. "Agape" is a verb, an action: "For God so loved the world that He gave..." What did He give? His only begotton Son. But He gives the Son to THEM, those whose names were written by God in the book of life of the lamb slain from [before] the foundation (creation) of the world" (Rev. 13:8 ).

Does God love all people the same?

He most certainly, and Biblically, does not.

Interesting interpretation of scripture???

There are many scriptures that teach the contrary. 

But it is ones personal relationship with Christ that is of first importance, being made like Him in all things. That Righteousness would reign in our lifes in the here and now. To the end that we might overcome the works of the flesh, so  that we might get a abundant welcome. 

Much love in Christ, Not me

Edited October 6, 2018 by Not me

[Unfailing Presence]

7 hours ago, jeremiah1five said:

8 hours ago, Unfailing Presence said:

Not my experience . 

The real " love " you need to answer to know the heart of God requires looking into a mirror and asking ourselves  ,  " why do I not love my neighbor as I love myself ? " 

According to the Lord's instruction and command our "neighbor" is another believer of a different spiritual tribe (as in the 12 tribes of Israel). It does not mean someone you may live near, or across the street, or someone you bump into at the super-duper market. ALL things Covenant belong to those IN Covenant. Not even God casts His Pearl, Jesus Christ, to swine.

Thanks.

You have no way of knowing who is a " believer " and neither do I . 

That is why Jesus placed no parameters on who is our  " neighbor " .

In fact Jesus commands us to give & preach the gospel to our "neighbors " specifically for the reason that they may have never heard the good news and therefore are not believers .

                                                          " In your prayers make intercession for all men . "      ( 1 Timothy 2 : 1 )

[Unfailing Presence]

On ‎10‎/‎6‎/‎2018 at 7:32 AM, jeremiah1five said:

On ‎10‎/‎6‎/‎2018 at 7:01 AM, Unfailing Presence said:

If God does not love everyone why did He put into the soul of every person a deep yearning for God ? 

              "Thou hast made us for Thyself and our soul is restless until we rest in Thee" , is still the echo of every person's soul today . 

  

" Acquaint now thyself with Him and be at peace , thereby good shall come unto to thee ."   ( Job 22 :21 )

That "deep yearning" was put into His elect people - those whose names are written in the book of life of the lamb slain... and ONLY after one has become saved. 

To make such a case you would need to show an  instance where Jesus forced someone to accept Him ?

If you can't show Jesus forcing  someone to accept Him  , you have no biblical support .