I Got a Question on and Event in the New Testament

[Guest John3:16Canadian]

Hey, Im a believer but i got a question if any of you can help me out with: why did jesus have to spit on the clay and rub it on the mans eyes to heal him of his blindness? wasnt this unnecessary? why not just heal him on the spot? if any of you can help me out that would be great. Thanks.

[Trinity]

Hey, Im a believer but i got a question if any of you can help me out with: why did jesus have to spit on the clay and rub it on the mans eyes to heal him of his blindness? wasnt this unnecessary? why not just heal him on the spot? if any of you can help me out that would be great. Thanks.

<{POST_SNAPBACK}>

Because he is God...

[Scarletprayers]

I'm in no way, shape, form or fashion and expert, but since we know Jesus didn't have to do any more than speak a healing and it was done, I've always kinda thought it was to show those watching that he could even use ordinary things and make them work for him. A message to us that no matter how dirty or bad we think we are that even dirt or clay can become something special in the hands of God.

Just my thought!

[Guest crazygit]

I thought he did it because the man was blind, and doing soemthing physical meant the blind man could "see" what he was doing? Just a thought

CG

[AFaceInTheCrowd]

Well since we were formed from the dust........

[apothanein kerdos]

I know in 7:33 when Jesus touches the man's ears and lips we get a glimpse at the knowledge and compassion of Jesus.

He touches the mans ears then his tongue, then spits on the ground and looks to Heaven. This seems to be sign language of Jesus saying, "I'm going to take your deafness and dumbness and take it out of you through with the power of God". And then He did.

So what significance does this have in mixing mud and spit? Nothing, I just found it interesting when searching for this story again

Anyway, John 9:6 is where we end up. I see two reasons for Jesus doing this. One, because the man was made out of clay, in essence, Jesus is showing the nature of man to be body and spirit. The second reason is that the laws forbid anyone to make clay on the Sabbath. Just so happens Jesus did this on the Sabbath...so it looks like He was basically picking a fight with the Pharisees. Also, by doing so it caused a controversy so they questioned this man, which Jesus found out ab out and addressed His diety and to avoid the Pharisees in the last part of chapter 9 and first part of chapter 10.

Hope that helps.

[sail2awe]

I agree that it is a Sabbath issue, or more to the point, that it showed the issue between those of law, who were supposed to be trained in the observance of the signs of the coming of the Lord and set Him as their King and Lord. As prophecy has shown the mind of God in this matter, they would not receive Him, so the Lord pushes at them harder, never permitting one to simply sit on the fence, if you will pardon my coloquialism:

Rom 9:21 Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honor, and another unto dishonor?

The kneading of the clay and spittle added another offense against the Sabbath rules of the rabbis. The verb epichriō = anoint, here only and Joh 9:11 " He answered and said, A man that is called Jesus made clay, and anointed mine eyes, and said unto me, Go to the pool of Siloam, and wash: and I went and washed, and I received sight".

Eph 5:26 finds its echo in those excersizes of showing forth, "That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word".

Edited August 14, 2005 by sail2awe

[other one]

I read an article many years ago that the origional greek language leaves one to believe that the man was actually born with no eyes. I am not sure that is the case maybe some of our greek scholors might know.

It was the aritcles notion that Jesus actually created a set of eye balls for this man and that is why it was so un heard of. If this is the case then maybe it is as simple as making the clay stick together to form eyeballs.

I don't have the background to know for a fact if this is the way it is, but it does follow along with the context of the story.

se

[Guest Zayit]

I would love to see that article other one. That is exactly what the L-RD told me he did when I was reading this again a few years ago.

One of the prophecies was that when Messiah would come he would make the blind see. Now I believe that is two-fold, their spiritual eyes would be open (as were those who recognized him in the Spirit like Kefa when he said "You are the son of G-d) and also those who were blinded in their eyes, which he did with others. But this man was different; it says he was blind since birth that gives clue number 1. This would mean everyone who knew him (and he begged for a living) would know that he had no eyes.

Number 2 is that Yeshua spit in the dust and made clay, yes it was a creative act but I dont' believe this was a breaking the Shabbat matter that the authorities were concerned with. Our next clue comes from the answer Yeshua gives when his disciples ask why was the man born blind? :Who sinned? Notice his answer:

John 9:1

And as Jesus passed by, he saw a man, which was blind from his birth. 2

And his disciples asked him, saying, Master, who did sin, this man, or his parents, that he was born blind?

[apothanein kerdos]

I read an article many years ago that the origional greek language leaves one to believe that the man was actually born with no eyes. I am not sure that is the case maybe some of our greek scholors might know.

I dunno where they got that idea. Nothing in the Greek hints at it, as far as I can tell. In fact, John 9:10 kind of seals it when they ask him how his eyes were opened. This means he had to have eyes to begin with in order for them to be shut.

Number 2 is that Yeshua spit in the dust and made clay, yes it was a creative act but I dont' believe this was a breaking the Shabbat matter that the authorities were concerned with.

Actually the contoversy began because He did this on the Sabbath. It is not the first time or the last time Jesus got in trouble because He healed or worked on the Sabbath.

Therefore some of the Pharisees were saying, "This man is not from God, because He does not keep the Sabbath " But others were saying, "How can a man who is a sinner perform such signs?" And there was a division among them.

See, those who knew him his whole life and knew he was eyeless were astonished, and had to ask each other and him if he was the same one, not because he was walking without a cane, but because he was walking around with eyes in his head.

No where in the Greek is this indicated so I'd be careful trying to formulate the argument around it