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Posted

 

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Posted

This was ok imo. I prefer the song "Say the Name" by Martha Munizzi


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Posted (edited)

Shalom, @TheBlade.

Thanks for the music, although I find it a little too repetitious for my taste. I like my music to SAY something! (And, @NConly, the same goes for "Say the Name.")

Give me a ballad any day!

Anyway, the word "name" can just be about one's given name, but in the Scriptures, it very often refers to a person's AUTHORITY! "In the name of Jesus" means "on the authority of Jesus." Context will supply the meaning of the word "name."

Besides, His given name is "יֵשׁוּעַ" or transliterated into English letters as "Yeeshuwa`,"  pronounced "Yay-SHOO-(g)ah." The name means "He shall save" or "He shall deliver" or "He shall rescue." In the prophecies, He is called "מְשִׁיחַ יְהוָה" or "Mshiyach YHWH" translated as "the LORD'S Anointed" or "the Anointed of the LORD." This is transliterated into "Messiah of the LORD," in translation, and in Greek, "Maashiyach" or "Mshiyach" was transliterated into Greek letters as "Μεσσίας" or "Messias" in John 1:41 and John 4:25 and translated into Greek as "Χριστός" or "Christos," which also means "Anointed One," from which we get the title "Christ."

This name was transliterated (changed letter by letter) into "Ἰησοῦς" or "Ieesous" in Greek (adding the -os or -ous ending for a name). (The Greek language doesn't have the "sh" sound and substituted the sigma's "s" sound, instead. The Greek also doesn't have the "y" sound, substituting the iota which gives the "ee" sound, which approximates it. And, the Greek also doesn't have a letter to translate the `ayin sound, although it approximated it with the gamma, a hard "g" sound, in the name "Gaza," found in Acts 8:26. Most of the time, it is considered a "silent letter.")

This name changed hands several times through Latin "Iēsvs"  (pronounced "YAY-soos") and German "Jesu" (pronounced "Yay-SOO"). Like German, the English language originally used the "J" as a "y" sound, so His name became "Jesus," pronounced "YAY-soos." Today, the pronunciation of the name has made the "J" the "dzh" sound, and the "e" is pronounced as a long "e," and the "u" has take on a short "u" sound.  Furthermore, many pronounce the first "s" as a "z" sound. This gives us a pronunciation 'of "DZHEE-zus," which doesn't sound much like the original name at all!

Edited by Retrobyter
to change one letter
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Posted

Thanks, very nice, brought to  my mind the song which I am playing right now as a follow up; by Baht Rivka Whitten, "Run ( Psalm 91)".


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Posted
9 hours ago, Retrobyter said:

Shalom, @TheBlade.

Thanks for the music, although I find it a little too repetitious for my taste. I like my music to SAY something! (And, @NConly, the same goes for "Say the Name.")

Give me a ballad any day!

Anyway, the word "name" can just be about one's given name, but in the Scriptures, it very often refers to a person's AUTHORITY! "In the name of Jesus" means "on the authority of Jesus." Context will supply the meaning of the word "name."

Besides, His given name is "יֵשׁוּעַ" or transliterated into English letters as "Yeeshuwa`,"  pronounced "Yay-SHOO-(g)ah." The name means "He shall save" or "He shall deliver" or "He shall rescue." In the prophecies, He is called "מְשִׁיחַ יְהוָה" or "Mshiyach YHWH" translated as "the LORD'S Anointed" or "the Anointed of the LORD." This is transliterated into "Messiah of the LORD," in translation, and in Greek, "Maashiyach" or "Mshiyach" was transliterated into Greek letters as "Μεσσίας" or "Messias" in John 1:41 and John 4:25 and translated into Greek as "Χριστός" or "Christos," which also means "Anointed One," from which we get the title "Christ."

This name was transliterated (changed letter by letter) into "Ἰησοῦς" or "Ieesous" in Greek (adding the -os or -ous ending for a name). (The Greek language doesn't have the "sh" sound and substituted the sigma's "s" sound, instead. The Greek also doesn't have the "y" sound, substituting the iota which gives the "ee" sound, which approximates it. And, the Greek also doesn't have a letter to translate the `ayin sound, although it approximated it with the gamma, a hard "g" sound, in the name "Gaza," found in Acts 8:26. Most of the time, it is considered a "silent letter.")

This name changed hands several times through Latin "Iēsvs"  (pronounced "YAY-soos") and German "Jesu" (pronounced "Yay-SOO"). Like German, the English language originally used the "J" as a "y" sound, so His name became "Jesus," pronounced "YAY-soos." Today, the pronunciation of the name has made the "J" the "dzh" sound, and the "e" is pronounced as a long "e," and the "u" has take on a short "u" sound.  Furthermore, many pronounce the first "s" as a "z" sound. This gives us a pronunciation 'of "DZHEE-zus," which doesn't sound much like the original name at all!

Im satisfied with the KJV translation into English as is.


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Posted
On 7/7/2024 at 10:22 AM, NConly said:

Im satisfied with the KJV translation into English as is.

Noted. Don't cast your pearls to the razorback boars. They won't understand their value; they only think you're trying to hurt them by throwing things at them; so they will turn and slash you with their tusks. GOT IT.


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Posted
4 hours ago, Retrobyter said:

Noted. Don't cast your pearls to the razorback boars. They won't understand their value; they only think you're trying to hurt them by throwing things at them; so they will turn and slash you with their tusks. GOT IT.

Well Im not a razorback. I just think God made a way in 321 translation for people to be saved without having to learn 3 other languages other than English. Not meant to offend anyone that has learned those languages.


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Posted
On 7/7/2024 at 10:22 AM, NConly said:

Im satisfied with the KJV translation into English as is.

Shalom, @NConly.

Most of the time, I am, too. However, sometimes, a person's understanding of a passage can be improved by looking up the words as they were written. God's Word has been preserved in the KJV, but the nuances of the words can be found in the original languages. English has changed since 1611 A.D. and some words are archaic and some are obsolete. Others are used in different senses than they were used in the 17th Century. Most people today don't understand words like "wot," "trow," "wither," "twain," "thither," etc., because they aren't used or aren't used so often any more. Even within Christian circles, most don't understand that "the heavens" refers to the visible sky! Often, the word "without" is used, but its original meaning in many texts was "outside." So, when one reads "the Gentiles were without the commonwealth," it means they were "outside of the commonwealth or citizenship." Many people today don't know the difference between the "thee's," "thou's," "thy's" and "thine's," as opposed to the "ye's," "you's," your's," and "yours's" found in the KJV! It took me a long time to know the difference, because NOBODY I KNEW knew the difference! They thought "thou" was some sort of holy word used in the Ten Commandments! Do you know the difference?


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Posted
57 minutes ago, Retrobyter said:

Shalom, @NConly.

Most of the time, I am, too. However, sometimes, a person's understanding of a passage can be improved by looking up the words as they were written. God's Word has been preserved in the KJV, but the nuances of the words can be found in the original languages. English has changed since 1611 A.D. and some words are archaic and some are obsolete. Others are used in different senses than they were used in the 17th Century. Most people today don't understand words like "wot," "trow," "wither," "twain," "thither," etc., because they aren't used or aren't used so often any more. Even within Christian circles, most don't understand that "the heavens" refers to the visible sky! Often, the word "without" is used, but its original meaning in many texts was "outside." So, when one reads "the Gentiles were without the commonwealth," it means they were "outside of the commonwealth or citizenship." Many people today don't know the difference between the "thee's," "thou's," "thy's" and "thine's," as opposed to the "ye's," "you's," your's," and "yours's" found in the KJV! It took me a long time to know the difference, because NOBODY I KNEW knew the difference! They thought "thou" was some sort of holy word used in the Ten Commandments! Do you know the difference?

John 3

7 Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again.

In the above verse "thee" means one definite person, in this case it was Nicodemus who Jesus was speaking to.

In the above verse "Ye" means all who want to be born again. plural.

So Nicodemus knew these two words and understood the meaning of Jesus.

I learned when I first started reading the Bible as a non Christian the internet provided definitions of all the words you listed and some you do not list. That is why I am puzzled by so many claiming they could not read the KJV because of these words.

 

Below is from Got Questions and I stand by it more so than some one translating in 2024.

In 1604 King James convened the Hampton Court Conference and authorized the start of a new translation of the Bible into English. The objective was to have one standard version of the Bible to be used across all English-speaking parishes. The task of translation was undertaken by 47 scholars, taken from a cross-section of Jacobean England. Many of them were highly skilled in ancient languages. The King James Authorized Version of the Bible was finished in 1611, just 85 years after the first translation of the New Testament into English appeared (Tyndale, 1526).

 


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Posted

Anyone appreciating the original 1611 edition KJV ( https://www.kingjamesbibleonline.org/1611_Ruth-Chapter-1/ ) might also find the  history of the American Standard Bible 1901 to have an interesting history, It is known as "the hard rock of truth".

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