Remarrying after a Divorce....is it forbidden?

[Openly Curious]

Hello firehill

Jesus said that he would make us the head and not the tail

What do you think the word "head" means that Jesus said He would make us?

OC

[Openly Curious]

Hello firehill

What do you think the word "lord" means in 1 Peter 3:5-6

which is referring back to Genesis 18:12--what do you think the word "lord" means that Sarah uses while speaking to her husband Abraham?

OC

[firehill]

BUZZ. FALSE. In 1 Peter 3:5 believeing wives and unbelieving husbands are the issue rather than two believing spouses. Therefore the word is not in the exact same context as the Ephesians context.

Man, you are clearly reading verse 1 wrong.

"Likewise ye wives be in subjection to your own husbands that if any obey not the word they also...."

Here we have no reason to think the word "any" refers back to "husbands". "Any", as is clear from verse 2, refers to anyone who observes the behaviour of the woman in question, and not just their husband.

"Lexicon Results for apeitheo (Strong's 544)

Greek for 544

Pronunciation Guide

apeitheo {ap-i-theh'-o}

TDNT Reference Root Word

TDNT - 6:10,818 from 545

Part of Speech

v

Outline of Biblical Usage

1) not to allow one's self to be persuaded

a) to refuse or withhold belief

b) to refuse belief and obedience

2) not to comply with

Authorized Version (KJV) Translation Count

[firehill]

Firehill:And the husband is submitting to his wife as all christians are bound to do. Eph 5:21

Butero:Not in the same manner. The Pastor is a member of Christ's church, but in his church he leads. The Deacons and Bishops are likewise members of Christ's church, but they still are in authority over the laity. We all submit to one another, but that doesn't change the fact their is a chain of command.

The pastor is not the

[firehill]

Butero:I don't know if you noticed Firehill, but while EricH ageed with you about the Greek Word, he is saying he disagrees with your interpretation, that it still means wives are to submit to their husbands, at least that is how it appears to me. If you are reading this EricH, feel free to set me or Firehill straight on your intent.

I never said that since the verb is borrowed from v.21 that therefore wives are not to submit to husbands. This is the third time you bring up an erroneous idea.

Then enlighten us. From what stance are you arguing then? Because it would seem from reading your posts that you were saying something quite different.

Are we simply debating whether or not a word appears there in the greek?

Or are we debating the interpretation given by Butero, EricH, and myself?

Butero:I don't know if you noticed Firehill, but while EricH ageed with you about the Greek Word, he is saying he disagrees with your interpretation, that it still means wives are to submit to their husbands, at least that is how it appears to me. If you are reading this EricH, feel free to set me or Firehill straight on your intent.

I never said that since the verb is borrowed from v.21 that therefore wives are not to submit to husbands. This is the third time you bring up an erroneous idea.

Then are you saying they should?

Butero:

Here is yet another scripture from 1 Peter 3:1 "LIKEWISE, ye wives, be in subjection to your own husbands; that, if any obey not the word, they also may without the word be won by the conversation of the wives. While they behold your chaste conversation coupled with fear."

The word subjection is from the Greek word hupotasso which means to subordinate; reflex. to obey: be under obedience (obedient), put under, subdue unto, (be, make) subject (to, unto), be (put) in subjection (to,under), submit self unto.

This was the last passage I used to show the husband is the authority in the home. Your memory is short Firehill. I will now seek to locate the other one.

Read this thread where I've already discussed the meaning. 'Wives role in marriage, By John MacArthur' in General Discussion.

But when we come into God's house we must remember both men and women that both are coming under the authority of Christ as He is the head of the church. And the man and women are the body of Christ and both are under submission in God's house. that is why the verse talks about it not being male nor female barbarian sythinian Jew or Greek. Because when we all come into His house to worship Him our nationalities don't matter our gender doesn't matter because we all are subject to Christ as we are the body and He is the head of that body.

OC

Can you find such a statement (I made bold the statement of your that I'm refering to) in scripture? In the church do men and women come together under Christ as Lord of the Church or under Christ as 'head' of the church? And if you say 'head' then please provide that verse in the Bible where it says that.

[firehill]

Firehill, since you continue to deny their is authority in the home outside of Jesus, I will add these verses as well. Ephesians 5:22-24

22 Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord.

23 For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the savior of the body.

24 Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in every thing.

To anyone reading this to get the true meaning and not to try to change it to fit a specific agenda, it is obvious that it is saying that the wife is to submit to the husband. The word submit is from the Greek word hupotasso which means to subordinate; refles. to obey: be under obedience (obedient), put under, subdue unto, (be,make) subject (to, unto), be (put) in subjection (to, under), submit self unto. As everyone is to be in subjection to the Lord Jesus Christ, wives are to be in subjection to their own husbands. This is plain.

The husband is the head of the wife, as Christ is the head of the church. The word head in the Greek literally means head. In this instance, it cannot mean a literal physical head as it would make no sense. It therefore has to be in authority, though authority is not in the definition. The head rules over the body. Anyone can logically put that together.

In the same way the church is in subjection to Christ, wives are to be to their own husbands. The word subjection is from the Greek word hupotage which means subordination. As the church is to be subordinate to Christ, wives are subordinate to their own husbands. Do you have someone disputing the meaning of these Greek words as well?

I've already answered how a husband leads his home. He attempts to make decisions with his wife. When they are at an impass, he ultimately has the last say. There is nothing tough to figure out here. If the man is being led by Christ, he is obeying the Bible, because it is Jesus' written word.

Here is the other passage I already posted showing the husband is the authority in the home. Of course, I recognize Christ is the supreme authority, but the husband is next in line and the parents are in authority over the children.

Then answer the question: How come the Greek term kephale is not recorded in earliest sources before Constatine to mean 'authority' or 'rule'?

[LadyRaven]

Then answer the question: How come the Greek term kephale is not recorded in earliest sources before Constatine to mean 'authority' or 'rule'?

Well, I'm sure that any sources which make this allegation will also explain why or state simply that the reason is not known.

however, it's hardly the point.

I'm not one of those people who believe that church doctrine is more evil because it's more new, nor do I believe it's less evil because it's new. It's differrent, true. We do have to ask why sometimes, but the more important question is "is it accurate" or "is it correct" not "who thought this up?"

I could ask why it's so important to you that it was constintine (if indeed it was him) who thought it up. Are you a dispensationalist? I'm not, but...I know you'd be offended if someone said "dispensationalism is a new doctrine not taught by the church until (Darby or some scottish gal, depending on who you ask)" That's not the point. It isn't automatically wrong just because the Bible was not interpreted that way until Darby (or the alledged scottish girl), in fact I think that's some sort of logical fallacy to fall onto that arguement.

[firehill]

Hello firehill

What do you think the word "lord" means in 1 Peter 3:5-6

which is referring back to Genesis 18:12--what do you think the word "lord" means that Sarah uses while speaking to her husband Abraham?

OC

What do you think it means?

"5. The example Peter gives of Sarah calling Abraham 'lord' deals with respect and not with obedience/authority per se:

"One should not read too much into Sarah's calling her husband

[firehill]

Firehill:And the husband is submitting to his wife as all christians are bound to do. Eph 5:21

Butero:Not in the same manner. The Pastor is a member of Christ's church, but in his church he leads. The Deacons and Bishops are likewise members of Christ's church, but they still are in authority over the laity. We all submit to one another, but that doesn't change the fact their is a chain of command.

The pastor is not the

[firehill]

Not to butt in, but does this passage have any bearing on this at all?

But Jesus called them unto him, and said, Ye know that the princes of the Gentiles exercise dominion over them, and they that are great exercise authority upon them. But it shall not be so among you: but whosoever will be great among you, let him be your minister; And whosoever will be chief among you, let him be your servant: Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for many.

(Mat 20:25-28)

Yes it does. it speaks volumes.