Remarrying after a Divorce....is it forbidden?

[firehill]

Not to butt in, but does this passage have any bearing on this at all?

But Jesus called them unto him, and said, Ye know that the princes of the Gentiles exercise dominion over them, and they that are great exercise authority upon them. But it shall not be so among you: but whosoever will be great among you, let him be your minister; And whosoever will be chief among you, let him be your servant: Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for many.

(Mat 20:25-28)

That has to do with our position in the Kingdom of God. If we want to be great there, we will minister to other's needs. We won't be seeking position like James and John, wanting to sit on the Lord's right and left hand when entering his Kingdom. Instead, because of our service, we will simply be promoted to the office God desires.

I put in bold the words that point out the relevence to the NOW, in church, anytime! Whosoever AMONG US.

[firehill]

I could ask why it's so important to you that it was constintine (if indeed it was him) who thought it up. Are you a dispensationalist? I'm not, but...I know you'd be offended if someone said "dispensationalism is a new doctrine not taught by the church until (Darby or some scottish gal, depending on who you ask)" That's not the point. It isn't automatically wrong just because the Bible was not interpreted that way until Darby (or the alledged scottish girl), in fact I think that's some sort of logical fallacy to fall onto that arguement.

This is the fact that I'm refering to:

"NONE of the SCORES of published lexicographers of ancient Greek even LIST "authority, ruler" as a meaning for this word (WS:WAB:97-110, 118-132). It only begins to show up with those minor usages after Constantine!"

http://www.christian-thinktank.com/fem09.html

[firehill]

3:1

Wives, in the same way be submissive to your husbands so that, if any of them do not believe the word, they may be won over without words by the behavior of their wives,

3:1 specificaly is speaking of HUSBANDS, that aren't believers.

In the passage above, I underlined the words "of them" which does not appear in my King James Version, nor in bible.com's version either. No such root word to suggest "of them" appears in the greek text either, according to Strongs. Why is it in your version?

That is an insertion that someone has made into the text, which is not justified by context. Further, biases the context to a pre-supposed position, which is also not justified by the context.

Yes, 'of them' is absent from the Greek.

Butero said: Firehill, if the word head in your mind doesn't refer to authority, what does it mean when the Bible speaks of Christ as being the head?

In reference to 1 Co. 11:3

"The root notion was that of 'source', and from this usage it was applied to people--Zeus, Pharoah, the progenitors of the Twelve Tribes, Christ-with reference to the Church, man (Adam)--with reference to woman (Eve)...."http://www.christian-thinktank.com/fem09.html

[Openly Curious]

oc

But when we come into God's house we must remember both men and women that both are coming under the authority of Christ as He is the head of the church. And the man and women are the body of Christ and both are under submission in God's house. that is why the verse talks about it not being male nor female barbarian sythinian Jew or Greek. Because when we all come into His house to worship Him our nationalities don't matter our gender doesn't matter because we all are subject to Christ as we are the body and He is the head of that body.

OC

(firehill)

Can you find such a statement (I made bold the statement of your that I'm refering to) in scripture? In the church do men and women come together under Christ as Lord of the Church or under Christ as 'head' of the church? And if you say 'head' then please provide that verse in the Bible where it says that.

[Openly Curious]

His word states that if any man divorces his wife (except for fornication)[/i] and marry's another commits adultry. i have heard it explained that if two divorce because either one or the other has been unfaithful...that "act of unfaithfulness" in God's eye leaves both free to remarry due the sexual sin has broken the yoke between them and therefore it is okay if they divorce and remarry. But only in that situation. Otherwise, they are bound to the other until death separates them, whether they divorce or not. Mainly because that one act of joining their bodies to another ---other than their mate---- is the only grounds God will accept as reason to divorce and permits remarriage.

Yet i have also heard that remarriage is only permitted for the partner that was faithful, but the unfaithful partner is not permitted to remarry.

So is God's word clear on which party is permitted to remarry? Are both free to remarry because that one act of unfaithfulness severed that bond?

Just interested in getting more insight to this subject.

in Christ,

robin

Hello cherishedfaith,

Sex outside of the marriage bed is grounds for divorce according to what Jesus taught his disciples and also the apostles taught in their epistles in the word of God. In the case of infidelity by one of the spouses in the marriage it is always first the heart of God that forgiveness would be granted and the relationship would be reconciled.

But if it cannot be reconciled then they are permitted by God to get a divorce. The reason being is for the cause of uncleanness. A spouse should not or be expected to put up with their spouses sleeping with different people and then lie with them for it makes for the spread of disease. So it is permitted or allowed by God more on the basis of uncleanliness that it brings into the relationship. You can especially see this very clear within our day as it is rampant even.

When in this case of infidelity happens a bill of divorcement is granted to the other who commited the act of adultery and by law they both are released from the marriage. Both partners are loosed by law and are free to do as they wish. Both partners are free to remarry if they wish they are not bound to one another any longer but freed and are no longer living in adultery.

Jesus said that "except it be for fornication" (which is sex outside of marriage) except it be for that reason alone. Meaning if you give your spouse a divorce just for anything except fornication and your spouse get remarried and you do to then both parties along with the other people they joined themselves with are in adultery except for fornication which is infidelity sex unfaithfulness of a spouse. according to Matthew 19:9

another type situations that would be the same as this is for abandonment of an "unbelieving" spouse where the spouse runs off and leaves and doesn't come back you are free to get a bill of divorcement which frees both partners to remarry if they so chose to do so, according to 1 Corinthians 7:15

and then their is the death of a spouse which they are free to remarry as they no longer bound by law as their spouse is death according to Romans chapter 7

OC

[firehill]

OC:

But when we come into God's house we must remember both men and women that both are coming under the authority of Christ as He is the head of the church. And the man and women are the body of Christ and both are under submission in God's house. that is why the verse talks about it not being male nor female barbarian sythinian Jew or Greek. Because when we all come into His house to worship Him our nationalities don't matter our gender doesn't matter because we all are subject to Christ as we are the body and He is the head of that body.

OC

The church submits to Christ because He is the head of the Church. The church obeys Christ because he is the Lord.

firehill:

Can you find such a statement (I made bold the statement of your that I'm refering to) in scripture? In the church do men and women come together under Christ as Lord of the Church or under Christ as 'head' of the church? And if you say 'head' then please provide that verse in the Bible where it says that.

OC's response:

firehill

what about Ephesians 4:3-6 vs 5 says there is only one Lord and could you tell me who it would be if not Christ ?

1Corinthians 8:6 shows "one" Lord by whom are all things and "we" by him

There is a difference between LORD (Greek, Strong's 2962, kurios, and one of it's meanings is 'supreme in authority' in which case this is the meaning that Butero ascribed to the Greek word kephale falsely!) and HEAD (which is used to mean 'origination, completion, consummation'). There is only ONE LORD who is Christ. Husbands are the head of only wives. They are not LORDS (kurios) of anyone.

The Greek kurios aslo by implication means 'Mr' as a title of respect

Here is quite an early translation of that Greek word:

The Geneva Bible (1587)

3:6

As Sara obeyed Abraham, and called him Sir: whose daughters ye are, whiles yee doe well, not being afraide of any terrour.

"5. The example Peter gives of Sarah calling Abraham 'lord' deals with respect and not with obedience/authority per se:

"...The direct address

[Jefferiah]

Well I really dont know all the scriptures concerning this and my own opinion may be nothing. But it seems to me that if a marriage relationship were really bad so that a divorce were necessary for the partner who is being wronged, that innocent partner should be able to remarry. If it were a violent relationship or some other bad situation why should the innocent partner have to spend the rest of their lives single when it is not their fault the first marriage had to end?

[firehill]

Hello firehill

Jesus said that he would make us the head and not the tail

What do you think the word "head" means that Jesus said He would make us?

OC

I just posted regarding the verses in the OT that speak of the 'head' and 'tail' metaphor in the thread, 'Poll: Research question- not intended to start debates, R U a Trinnitarian, and if so , how do you define it?', in Controversial Issues so I will just paste that response here.

Hebrew for 07218Pronunciation Guide

ro'sh {roshe}

TWOT Reference Root Word

TWOT - 2097

from an unused root apparently meaning to shake

Part of Speech

n m

Outline of Biblical Usage

1) head, top, summit, upper part, chief, total, sum, height, front, beginning

a) head (of man, animals)

b) top, tip (of mountain)

c) height (of stars)

d) chief, head (of man, city, nation, place, family, priest)

e) head, front, beginning

f) chief, choicest, best

g) head, division, company, band

h) sum

Authorized Version (KJV) Translation Count

[Openly Curious]

Hello firehill

Jesus said that he would make us the head and not the tail

What do you think the word "head" means that Jesus said He would make us?

OC

I just posted regarding the verses in the OT that speak of the 'head' and 'tail' metaphor in the thread, 'Poll: Research question- not intended to start debates, R U a Trinnitarian, and if so , how do you define it?', in Controversial Issues so I will just paste that response here.

Hebrew for 07218Pronunciation Guide

ro'sh {roshe}

TWOT Reference Root Word

TWOT - 2097

from an unused root apparently meaning to shake

Part of Speech

n m

Outline of Biblical Usage

1) head, top, summit, upper part, chief, total, sum, height, front, beginning

a) head (of man, animals)

b) top, tip (of mountain)

c) height (of stars)

d) chief, head (of man, city, nation, place, family, priest)

e) head, front, beginning

f) chief, choicest, best

g) head, division, company, band

h) sum

Authorized Version (KJV) Translation Count

[Openly Curious]

OC:

But when we come into God's house we must remember both men and women that both are coming under the authority of Christ as He is the head of the church. And the man and women are the body of Christ and both are under submission in God's house. that is why the verse talks about it not being male nor female barbarian sythinian Jew or Greek. Because when we all come into His house to worship Him our nationalities don't matter our gender doesn't matter because we all are subject to Christ as we are the body and He is the head of that body.

OC

(firehill)

The church submits to Christ because He is the head of the Church. The church obeys Christ because he is the Lord.

OC

To "submit" and to "obey" is the same things they are not different. they both are laying down in order to follow the leading of another. So it is in the marriage when wives submit and obey their husbands leadership of the home as he is head of the woman the authority. Same way in the church we submit our wills and obey Christ's leadership as He is head authority over the church and will have final say one day.