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Need a Bible translation expert.


gypc

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(KJV)1 Tim 6:5Perverse disputings of men of corrupt minds, and destitute of the truth, supposing that gain is godliness: from such withdraw thyself.

Ok, I was just at Biblegateway.com studying and came acrossed this. The last part of this scripture.."from such withdraw thyself" is only in the KJV, NKJV, 21CenturyKJV, Youngs Literal Translation and WWE which says it like ..."keep away from such people".

My question is.......does anyone know why it was taken out of all the other translations, like NIV and such?

Thanks,

In his love,

Brian

edit:Here's the link

Also in the notes it says "NU-text omits this sentence"

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I'm not a bible translation expert and I am not one to quibble over various bible translations. The reason being is I think that the parts that are still the same and not changed and left in the new versions are just as powerful as it always has been and lives can be changed as His word will not come back void.

It is unfortunate that to me their is obviously things being left out and things don't read the same in all the translations but then again it would not be a new version or translation if there were not differences.

Perhaps the version that is under the scope here is a political correct version all accepting of everyone not excluding anyone philosphy of today.

The word says that bad communication corrupts good manners. Surely that was the case in the letter apostle Paul wrote to young Timothy in 1 Timothy chapter 6 we should not measure one's righteousness by the material blessings we have in this life as was the case in 1 Timothy 6 this teaching was going on and their were some who did not have that much material goods and well you know how that made them feel in their faith toward God.

But Paul told Timothy to charge them or command them otherwise concerning the truth about wealth and that our righteousness is in Christ Jesus and measured by Him only as He is the only mediator between man and God. Paul said that those teaching that their gain was godliness were men of corrupt minds and destitute of the truth. These false teachers with their bad communications and behavior in the church was corrupting the righteous people among them to not believe that godliness with contentment was great gain. And as false teachers we are to turn away our ears from what they say and have no dealings with them. It is a pity that this particular version left these things out of it.

OC

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Read further on to verse 11:

But you, man of God, flee from all this, and pursue righteousness, godliness, faith, love, endurance and gentleness.

It refers to the previous passage. I get the same message. Flee from such people.

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(KJV)1 Tim 6:5Perverse disputings of men of corrupt minds, and destitute of the truth, supposing that gain is godliness: from such withdraw thyself.

Ok, I was just at Biblegateway.com studying and came acrossed this. The last part of this scripture.."from such withdraw thyself" is only in the KJV, NKJV, 21CenturyKJV, Youngs Literal Translation and WWE which says it like ..."keep away from such people".

My question is.......does anyone know why it was taken out of all the other translations, like NIV and such?

Thanks,

In his love,

Brian

edit:Here's the link

Also in the notes it says "NU-text omits this sentence"

Gypc, it depends on which manuscripts that the translation comes from. The textus recptus from which the KJV comes from has that phrase in it, and the Nestle manuscript does not. There arer other differences between the two that do make large differences and one should read and compare both sets of texts before making dogmatic doctrine to follow.

I personally am a textus recptus person when it comes to which is correct when there are differences, but not everyone is. It's easy for me for my study bible is on my computer with several translations and two interlinear bibles of both Textus Receptus and the Nestle manuscripts.

There are not many differences that I personally have trouble with..... John 3:16 is the main one for me.

In this case the later verse basically covers the same thing, but I am not sure it is as strong a message as the KJV.

Sam

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Thanks, I really apreciate everyone's imput. I think this has opened a door to some really deep study. :thumbsup:

In his love,

Brian

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Thanks, I really apreciate everyone's imput. I think this has opened a door to some really deep study. :24:

In his love,

Brian

Great! And as you study remember this fact: Although the Textus Receptus was amalgamated at a time that only 12 ancient Greek texts were available, and today we have many THOUSANDS, the Textus Receptus remains THE ONLY Greek text still backed up by 90% of ALL AVAILABLE MANUSCRIPT DATA.

In short, it is both an exceptional piece of profound scholarship, and quite probably MIRACULOUS!

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I agree with bro leonard but if you struggle with the old english versions try the NASB it is a very close word for word translation from the original texts.

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Guest Theology_Professor

The Greek text that the NIV is based on is an "updated" text with many verses edited and even removed according to people like Westcott and Hort. It is not correct to take it out. They are using faulty sources for their "translations" which are man-made copywritten works... not the word of God.

The KJV had it right and people should leave the bible alone. That is why there is so much confusion in the church.

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(KJV)1 Tim 6:5Perverse disputings of men of corrupt minds, and destitute of the truth, supposing that gain is godliness: from such withdraw thyself.

Ok, I was just at Biblegateway.com studying and came acrossed this. The last part of this scripture.."from such withdraw thyself" is only in the KJV, NKJV, 21CenturyKJV, Youngs Literal Translation and WWE which says it like ..."keep away from such people".

My question is.......does anyone know why it was taken out of all the other translations, like NIV and such?

Thanks,

In his love,

Brian

edit:Here's the link

Also in the notes it says "NU-text omits this sentence"

Have you considered that maybe the other translations didn't "take it out", but rather the KJV added it where it does not belong?

Just a thought.

Peace,

F

:emot-highfive:

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Here are Metzger's notes on 1 Timothy 6:5

After euvse,beian the Textus Receptus adds avfi,staso avpo. tw/n toiou,twn, with Dc K L P Y 061 most minuscules ifar, b, mon, o syrp, h gothms arm ethpp Irenaeus Cyprian Ambrosiaster Speculum al. Although the reading is ancient, as appears from patristic testimony, it must be rejected as a pious but banal gloss, because (a) the best manuscripts of both the Alexandrian and the Western types of text (a A D* F G 048 33 81 88 424c 1739 1881 itd, g, r vg copsa, bo gothms ethro and (b) if it were present originally, no good reason can be assigned for its omission.

His statement is that the phrase must be regarded as a gloss, because the best texts we have from both the Alexandrian and Western types reject do not include the phrase. When KJV was written the translators did not have these better texts at their disposal Origen Ambrose) support the shorter reading. Also no good reason can be given for its not being included in the more numerous and dependable manuscripts

It should also be noted that most of the best commentaries on the text omit the phrase

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